Question Bank on Genetics (With Answers)!

1. The term polygenes was coined by which of the following

(A) Jink

(B) Mather

(C) East

(D) Nilsson-Ehle

Ans. B

2. The coupling and repulsion phase terms was first described by which of the following

(A) Bridges

(B) Bateson and Punnett

(C) Sturtvent

(D) Morgan

Ans. B

3. Crossing over occurs during which of the following

(A) Pachytene

(B) Zygotene

(C) Diplotene

(D) Leptotene

Ans. A

4. In which of the following sub-stages of meiosis-I, chromatin exchange between non sister chromatids begins

(A) Diakinesis

(B) Diplotene

(C) Pachytene

(D) Zygotene

Ans. D

5. The phenomenon of transformation was first discovered by which of the following

(A) Griffing

(B) Griffith

(C) Garrod

(D) Koch

Ans. B

6. During 1946, which of the following scientists first demonstrated sexuality (conjugation) in bacteria

(A) Jacob and Wollman

(B) Lederberg and Tatum

(C) Luria and Delbruck

(D) Hershey and Bailey

Ans. B

7. Which of the following scientists reported the first case of sex linkage

(A) Bridges

(B) Me Clung

(C) Morgan

(D) Sturtvent

Ans. C

8. Genie balance theory of sex determination was proposed by, which of the following

(A) Stevens

(B) Morgan

(C) Bridges

(D) Sturtvent

Ans. C

9. Alleles that are similar in their effects on a character are termed as which of the following

(A) Isoalleles

(B) Polygenes

(C) Pseudoalleles

(D) Multiple alleles

Ans. A

10. When both the alleles of a gene are fully expressed in the heterozygotes, it leads to which of the following

(A) Codominance

(B) Partial dominance

(C) Pseudo dominance

(D) Over dominance

Ans. A

11. The term cistron was coined by _____

(A) Beadle

(B) Lederberg

(C) Baltimore

(D) Benzer

Ans. D

12. Unequal crossing over may lead to which of the following

(A) Duplication

(B) Mutation

(C) Gene fusion

(D) All of the above

Ans. D

13. Which of the following gene is non functional

(A) Pseudogene

(B) Pseudoallele

(C) Split genes

(D) Multiple allele

Ans. A

14. Processed pseudogenes are derived from which of the following

(A) Pseudogenes

(B) mRNA of split genes

(C) hnRNA

(D) Split genes

Ans. B

15. Genetic material of viroids consists of which of the following

(A) Nucleoprotein

(B) Protein

(C) RNA

(D) DNA

Ans. C

16. A nucleotide consists of which of the following

(A) Base and pentose

(B) Pentose and phosphate

(C) Organic base and phosphate

(D) Base, pentose and phosphate

Ans. D

17. A nucleoside consist of which of the following

(A) Base and pentose sugar

(B) Pentose and phosphate

(C) Organic base and phosphate

(D) Base, pentose and phosphate

Ans. A

18. Phosphodiester bond forms between which of the following

(A) 2’C and 1’C

(B) 5’C and 3’C

(C) 5’C and 2’C

(D) 3’C and 1’C

Ans. B

19. Which of the following forms of DNA has left handed coil

(A) A-DNA

(B) B-DNA

(C) Z-DNA

(D) C-DNA

Ans. C

20. Which form of DNA is common in vivo?

(A) A-DNA

(B) B-DNA

(C) Z-DNA

(D) C-DNA

Ans. B

21. Viral genomes are packaged into which of the following

(A) Nucleoids

(B) Capsules

(C) Capsids

(D) Nuclei

Ans. C

22. What is the DNA content of a somatic cell in G2 phase nucleus?

(A) 2C

(B) 1C

(C) 4C

(D) 8C

Ans. C

23. Which of the following does not have overlapping genes

(A) MS2

(B) SV40

(C) M 13

(D) Phage

Ans. C

24. Who proposed the concept of central dogma?

(A) Watson

(B) Crick

(C) Wilkins

(D) Watson and Crick

Ans. B

25. Which of the following is known as Kornberg enzyme

(A) DNA Polymerase III

(B) DNA Polymerase I

(C) DNA Polymerase II

(D) RNA Polymerase

Ans. B

26. Double helical structure of DNA was shown by _____

(A) Bateson and Punnett

(B) Beadle and Tatum

(C) Jacob and Monad

(D) Watson and Crick

Ans. D

27. DNA can be denatured by heating at a temperature of _____

(A) 72°C

(B) 94°C

(C) 86°C

(D) 90°C

Ans. B

28. Translocation in a cell involves­­­­ _____

(A) Homologous chromosome

(B) Non-Homologous chromosome

(C) Chromosomes from other species

(D) None of the above

Ans. A

29. Effect of pollen on the character of endosperm is called _____

(A) Metaxenia

(B) Xenia

(C) Epistasis

(D) Hyperxenia

Ans. B

30. The terms recon, muton and cistron was coined in 1957 by _____

(A) Bridges

(B) Muller

(C) Morgan

(D) Benzer

Ans. D

31. Who discovered ‘X-rays’ first?

(A) Wilson

(B) Muller

(C) Roentgen

(D) Benzer

Ans. C

32. Which organelle is having digestive enzyme

(A) Ribosomes

(B) Golgi bodies

(C) Chloroplast

(D) Lysosomes

Ans. D

33. DNA synthesis will take place in which stage

(A) G1

(B) G2

(C) S

(D) None

Ans. C

34. Okazaki fragments are formed due to synthesis of DNA in direction of _____

(A) 5′-3′

(B) 3′-5′

(C) Both A and B

(D) None

Ans. A

35. In DNA double helix, G/A is equal to _____

(A) C/T

(B) T/A

(C) C/A

(D) C/G

Ans. A

36. The number of bases in a single turn of the DNA helix

(A) 5

(B) 10

(C) 7

(D) 12

Ans. B

37. Concept of ‘epigenesis’ was proposed by _____

(A) Robinson

(B) Tyndall

(C) Jones

(D) Wolf

Ans. D

38. Puffs in polytene chromosomes are the sites of _____

(A) Protein synthesis

(B) DNA synthesis

(C) RNA synthesis

(D) Cell synthesis

Ans. B

39. Inheritance of two characters can be measured by _____

(A) Heritability

(B) Co-heritability

(C) Variability

(D) None of the above

Ans. B

40. tRNA is found in which of the following parts of the cell

(A) ER

(B) Vacuole

(C) Cytoplasm

(D) Golgi body

Ans. C

41. The process of protein synthesis is generally known as which of the following

(A) Transcription

(B) Proteolysis

(C) Protein processing

(D) Translation

Ans. D

42. Which of the following describes the synthesis of messenger RNA

(A) Replication

(B) Transcription

(C) Translation

(D) Transition

Ans. B

43. Which codons usually act as initiation codon?

(A) AUG

(B) UGG

(C) AGA

(D) GAC

Ans. A

44. Which of the following scientists postulated the wobble hypothesis

(A) Watson

(B) Crick

(C) Khorana

(D) Nirenberg

Ans. B

45. Which codons usually act as chain termination codon?

(A) UGA

(B) UAA

(C) AUG

(D) Both A and B

Ans. D

46. The size of ribosome of prokaryote is 70S, which dissociate into which of the following subunits

(A) 50S and 30S

(B) 40S and 30S

(C) 45S and 25S

(D) 50S and 20S

Ans. B

47. Long-lived mRNAs are found in which of the following

(A) Leaves

(B) Seeds

(C) Roots

(D) All of the above

Ans. B

48. In the clover leaf model of tRNA which is the closest to the anticodon loop

(A) Amino acid accepter

(B) Extra loop region

(C) DHU loop

(D) Thymine loop

Ans. B

49. The mutation theory of evolution was proposed by _____

(A) Bridges

(B) Muller

(C) Hugo de vries

(D) Auerbach

Ans. C

50. Which of the following is non Ionizing radiation

(A) Beta-rays

(B) UV rays

(C) Thermal neutrons

(D) X rays

Ans. B

51. The largest number of mutant varieties have been developed in which of the following

(A) Cash crop

(B) Pulses

(C) Oilseeds

(D) Cereals

Ans. D

52. Prabhavati is a mutant variety of _____

(A) Wheat

(B) Bajra

(C) Rice

(D) Sorghum

Ans. C

53. Which of the following scientist reported cytoplasmic male sterility in maize

(A) Roades

(B) Kihara

(C) Lewin

(D) Ramage

Ans. A

54. Hardy-Weinberg law was discovered in which years

(A) 1905

(B) 1908

(C) 1910

(D) 1914

Ans. B

55. Which of the following occurs in small populations

(A) Inbreeding

(B) Random change in gene frequency

(C) Increase in homozygosity

(D) All of the above

Ans. D

56. Term ‘Struggle for existence’ was proposed by _____

(A) Darwin

(B) Lamarck

(C) Lewin

(D) Wallace

Ans. A

57. Which of the following is critical during DNA replication

(A) Ionic interaction

(B) Hydrogen bonds

(C) Covalent bonds

(D) Hydrophobic interaction

Ans. B

58. The smallest unit of genetic material is _____

(A) Intron

(B) Exon

(C) Muton

(D) Recon

Ans. D

59. The largest unit of a gene, which is a unit of function is called ­­_____

(A) Intron

(B) Cistron

(C) Muton

(D) Recon

Ans. B

60. The concept of diallel selective mating was developed by _____

(A) Mather

(B) Jensen

(C) Borlaug

(D) Thoday

Ans. B

61. Random fluctuation in gene frequencies of a population is called _____

(A) Trait drift

(B) Gene drift

(C) Genetic drift

(D) Chromosome drift

Ans. C

62. In 1965, folded fire model of chromosome structure was proposed by _____

(A) Sutton

(B) Donald

(C) DuPraw

(D) Johnson

Ans. C

63. In mitosis the longest phase is _____

(A) Prophase

(B) Metaphase

(C) Anaphase

(D) Telophase

Ans. A

64. Cells without cell wall are known as _____

(A) Protoplast

(B) Protoplastds

(C) Chloroplast

(D) Cybrids

Ans. A

65. DNA as a genetic material was shown by _____

(A) Avery, Macleod and Mc Carty

(B) Watson and Crick

(C) Griffith

(D) Maxam and Gilbert

Ans. A

66. Genetic basis of purelines or pureline theory was proposed by _____

(A) Nilsson-Ehle

(B) Vilmorin

(C) Johannsen

(D) Camerarius

Ans. C

67. The first step in genetic improvement of a plant species is _____

(A) Domestication

(B) Introduction

(C) Selection

(D) Germplasm collection

Ans. A

68. Cereals are deficient in _____

(A) Proline

(B) Methionine

(C) Trptophan

(D) Lysine

Ans. D

69. The ‘father of green revolution’ is _____

(A) B.P. Pal

(B) N.E. Borlaug

(C) M.S. Swaminathan

(D) A. Howard

Ans. B

70. Khesari contains a neurotoxic substance known as _____

(A) Erucic acid

(B) BOAA

(C) Saponin

(D) Glucosinolate

Ans. B

71. The father of Indian green revolution

(A) B.P. Pal

(B) N.E. Borlaug

(C) M.S. Swaminathan

(D) A. Howard

Ans. C

72. The botanical name of Indian cane is _____

(A) Saccharum barberi

(B) Saccharum robusta

(C) Saccharum sinense

(D) Saccharum officinarum

Ans. D

73. The first pigeon pea hybrid is _____

(A) ICPH 8

(B) PPH 4

(C) Co1

(D) H4

Ans. A

74. The first cotton hybrid released in India was _____

(A) Varalaxmi

(B) PPH 4

(C) H6

(D) H4

Ans. D

75. The world’s first high yielding semi-dwarf aromatic rice variety is________

(A) Jaya

(B) Ratna

(C) Taraori Basmati

(D) Pusa Basmati 1

Ans. D

76. The source of reduced height genes used in wheat breeding is _____

(A) Norin 10

(B) Tom Thumb

(C) Dee-geo-woo gene

(D) Norin 10 and Tom Thumb

Ans. D

77. The source of dwarfing gene in rice is _____

(A) Norin 10

(B) Tom Thumb

(C) Dee-geo-woo gene

(D) Kafir-60

Ans. C

78. The National Seeds Corporation was established in the year

(A) 1963

(B) 1966

(C) 1969

(D) 1961

Ans. A

79. Breeder seed has genetic purity of _______

(A) 98%

(B) 99.5%

(C) 100%

(D) 95%

Ans. C

80. Varalaxmi cotton hybrid is derived from the cross between

(A) G.hirsutum x G.hirsutum

(B) G.hirsutum x G.barbadense

(C) G.barbademe x G.barbadense

(D) G.herbaceum x G.herbaceum

Ans. B

81. Tag of which colour is issued for foundation seed

(A) Yellow

(B) White

(C) Blue

(D) Red

Ans. B

82. Tag of which colour is issued for Breeder seed

(A) Yellow

(B) White

(C) Blue

(D) Red

Ans. A

83. Thermo and photo-sensitive genetic male sterility systems were first developed in _____

(A) Wheat

(B) Maize

(C) Rice

(D) Soyabean

Ans. C

84. The maximum heterosis is likely to be manifested in a _____

(A) Single cross

(B) Top cross

(C) Double cross

(D) Double topcross

Ans. A

85. International seed testing association came into existence on _______

(A) 1924

(B) 1928

(C) 1931

(D) 1929

Ans. A

86. Development of seed without sexual process known as ________

(A) Apogamy

(B) Megasporogenesis

(C) Cleistogamy

(D) Microsporogenesis

Ans. A

87. The concepts of centres of origin of crop plants was proposed by _____

(A) N.I. Vavilov

(B) C. Linnaeus

(C) L.R. Harlan

(D) J.B. Hutchinson

Ans. A

88. Seed collections disturbed only for regeneration are called _____

(A) Field collection

(B) Base collection

(C) Working collection

(D) Active collection

Ans. B

89. Land races refers to _____

(A) Obsolete cultivar

(B) Primitive cultivar

(C) Advanced inbred line

(D) None of these

Ans. B

90. Cleistogamy promotes

(A) Self-pollination

(B) Cross pollination

(C) Often cross pollination

(D) All of the above

Ans. A