Agriculture and Rural Development Questions for Nabard!
1. Natural farming was advocated by _______
(A) Gilbert
(B) Fakuoka
(C) Lawes
(D) Norman E. Borlaug
Ans. B
2. Imperial Agricultural Research Institute was established in ________
(A) 1905
(B) 1915
(C) 1925
(D) 1935
Ans. A
3. Department of Agriculture (in the world) was first established during _______
(A) 1853
(B) 1872
(C) 1862
(D) 1892
Ans. C
4. In India, Agriculture Department was established by ______
(A) Lord Ribbon, 1861
(B) Lord Mayoa, 1871
(C) Lord Curzon, 1881
(D) Lord Cornnwallish, 1891
Ans. B
5. Separate Central Agriculture Department was started in ________
(A) 1907
(B) 1871
(C) 1881
(D) 1891
Ans. C
6. AICRP on Maize was started in __________
(A) 1942
(B) 1955
(C) 1957
(D) 1965
Ans. C
7. AICRP on Dryland Agriculture was started in _________
(A) 1961
(B) 1971
(C) 1981
(D) 1991
Ans. B
8. Father of Tillage
(A) Pietro de crescengi
(B) Jethro Tull
(C) Dokuchaev
(D) Fukuoka
Ans. B
9. The average land availability per person globally is about ________ ha
(A) 3.0
(B) 3.8
(C) 4.5
(D) 0.8
Ans. B
10. The average land availability per person in India is about ________ ha
(A) 3.0
(B) 3.8
(C) 4.5
(D) 0.8
Ans. D
11. Gametes are usually _____ cells
(A) Diploid
(B) Germ
(C) Haploid
(D) Polyploid
Ans. C
12. Auxanometer is used to measure
(A) Transpiration rate
(B) Growth of the plant
(C) Acidity
(D) TSS
Ans. B
13. Which is an antioxidant
(A) Vitamin C
(B) Sugar
(C) Vitamin A
(D) Ethylene
Ans. A
14. Indian Institute of Vegetable Research (IIVR) is situated at _____
(A) New Delhi
(B) Hyderabad
(C) Varanasi
(D) Kolkata
Ans. C
15. Mass selection is practiced on the basis of _____
(A) Genotype
(B) Environment
(C) Phenotype
(D) All of the above
Ans. C
16. Double grafting is done to overcome
(A) Poor bud intake
(B) Translocated incompatibility
(C) Less vigour
(D) Localized incompatibility
Ans. D
17. Which of the following is an Ethylene absorbent
(A) NaOH
(B) K2SO4
(C) KMs
(D) KMnO4
Ans. D
18. Seed stores the phosphorous in the form of _____
(A) Chitin
(B) Chromatin
(C) Phytin
(D) Zeatin
Ans. C
19. Which is the most commonly used solidifying agent in plant tissue culture media
(A) Agar
(B) Starch
(C) Sucrose
(D) Glucose
Ans. A
20. Where is the Central Institute of Medicinal and Aromatic Plants Located?
(A) Calicut
(B) Lucknow
(C) Assam
(D) Bhopal
Ans. B
21. Plant cells surrounded by a non-living and rigid coat called _____
(A) Cell wall
(B) Mitochondrial wall
(C) Karyo wall
(D) Ribo wall
Ans. A
22. The chemical that prevents nuclear division without affecting the progress of various phases of cell division
(A) Proline
(B) Colchicine
(C) Nucleatin
(D) Chromatin
Ans. B
23. Which of the following has clover leaf secondary structure
(A) mRNA
(B) snRNA
(C) tRNA
(D) rRNA
Ans. C
24. The nucleosome histone octamer does not contain which of the following histones
(A) H2A
(B) H1
(C) H2B
(D) H3
Ans. B
25. Who discovered mitochondria?
(A) Hollicker
(B) Benda
(C) Hooke
(D) Boveri
Ans. A
26. Which of the following does not contain DNA
(A) Chloroplast
(B) Mitochondria
(C) Golgi body
(D) Nucleus
Ans. C
27. Schlieden and Schwan jointly proposed which of the following theories
(A) Theory of evolution
(B) Theory of pure-lines
(C) Cell-lineage theory
(D) Cell theory
Ans. D
28. The folded fibre model of chromosome structure was proposed by _____
(A) Kornberg
(B) Taylor
(C) DuPraw
(D) Thomas
Ans. B
29. Which of the following histones is lysine rich
(A) H1
(B) H3
(C) H4
(D) Both H1 and H3
Ans. A
30. Which part of chromosomes contains constitutive heterochromatin?
(A) Chromomere
(B) Centromere
(C) Telomere
(D) Both B and C
Ans. D
31. A mineral called heavy when specific gravity (gm/cc) is _____
(A) > 2.85
(B) < 2.85
(C) > 3.85
(D) < 3.85
Ans. A
32. Physical weathering dominant in _______
(A) Humid
(B) Tropical
(C) Sub-tropical
(D) Dry and cool
Ans. D
33. Most resistant mineral in soil
(A) Olivine
(B) Quartz
(C) Biotite
(D) Muscovite
Ans. B
34. Tourmaline is a source of element
(A) Mo
(B) B
(C) Cu
(D) Zn
Ans. B
35. Mo bearing mineral
(A) Tourmaline
(B) Olivine
(C) Pyrolusite
(D) Dolomite
Ans. B
36. Which soil found maximum area in India?
(A) Entisol
(B) Inceptisol
(C) Alfisol
(D) Vertisol
Ans. B
37. “Microrelief and gilgai effect” found in which soil
(A) Vertisol
(B) Inceptisol
(C) Spodosol
(D) Gelisol
Ans. A
38. The order of degradation of plant composition
(A) Sugar > Starch > Protein > Hemicelluloses > Cellulose > Lignin
(B) Starch > Sugar > Protein > Hemicelluloses > Cellulose > Lignin
(C) Sugar > Starch > Cellulose > Hemicelluloses > Lignin > Protein
(D) Sugar> Starch > Protein > Lignin > Cellulose > Hemicellulose
Ans. A
39. When organic residue added in soil which organism attack first
(A) Bacteria
(B) Fungi
(C) Actinomycetes
(D) All of the above
Ans. A
40. The organic fraction soluble in both acid and alkali
(A) Fulvic
(B) Humic
(C) Humin
(D) Geosmin
Ans. A
41. The function of peritrophic membrane is _________
(A) Absorption
(B) Protection
(C) Assimilation
(D) None of these
Ans. B
42. The spiracles are absent in which of the following insects:
(A) Cecidomyid larvae
(B) Mycetophilid larvae
(C) Chironomid larvae
(D) Psycodid larvae
Ans. C
43. The alimentary canal of insect is derived from __________
(A) Ectoderm
(B) Endoderm
(C) Ectoderm and Endoderm
(D) Endoderm and mesoderm
Ans. C
44. Most of the caterpillars have abdominal legs on segments:
(A) 2 to 5 and 10
(B) 6 to 10
(C) 3 to 6 and 10
(D) 5 to 8 and 10
Ans. C
45. Number of abdominal legs found in the larvae of mustard sawfly is _____
(A) 4 pairs
(B) 8 pairs
(C) 6 pairs
(D) 10 pairs
Ans. B
46. The terminal abdominal segments 6-9 are telescoped within the segment 5 when not in use. This condition is found in _____
(A) House fly
(B) Dragonfly
(C) Whitefly
(D) Butterfly
Ans. A
47. Prostheca is associated with _____
(A) Antennae
(B) Mandibles
(C) Maxillae
(D) Cuticle
Ans. B
48. Moulting fluid is able to digest:
(A) Cement layer
(B) Endocuticle
(C) Exocuticle
(D) Cuticulin layer
Ans. B
49. Most of the insects excrete 80 to 90 per cent of their nitrogenous waste in the form of _____
(A) Urea
(B) Ammonia
(C) Uric Acid
(D) Ammonium Nitrate
Ans. C
50. In which Organelle, protein synthesis takes place:
(A) Nucleus
(B) Ribosome
(C) Mitochondrion
(D) All of these
Ans. B
51. The Romans used to celebrate a festival, “Robigalia” on 25th April to ward off which disease that was initiated by king Numa Pomplius
(A) Wheat Rust
(B) Barley Smut
(C) Wheat loose smut
(D) Barley Rust
Ans. A
52. Which is the first phanerogamic plant parasite to be recognized as such and the first pathogen for which a cultural control (by pruning affected branches) was recommended by Albertus Magnus (1200 A. D.)
(A) Cuscuta
(B) Striga
(C) Mistletoe
(D) Loranthus
Ans. C
53. The first seed health testing was established in 1918 (Government seed Testing Station) in which country?
(A) England
(B) New Zealand
(C) France
(D) Netherland
Ans. D
54. Who was the first official seed pathologist?
(A) Dr. Lucie Doyer
(B) R.J. Cook
(C) Neergard
(D) Oscar Loewi
Ans. A
55. The first quarantine station was established for sugarcane in ______
(A) England
(B) Hawaii
(C) Myanmar
(D) Indonesia
Ans. B
56. The first book wholly devoted to biological control of plant pathogens was published by whom entitled “Biological Control of Plant Pathogens”
(A) E.J. Butler
(B) K.F. Baker and R.J. Cook
(C) Poul Neergard
(D) Hawker and abbot
Ans. B
57. ‘St. Anthony’s fire’ is associated with _____
(A) Puccinia
(B) Peronospora
(C) Sclerotium
(D) Claviceps
Ans. D
58. Gene for gene hypothesis was given by _____
(A) Harold H. Flor
(B) E.J. Butler
(C) Vander Planck
(D) H.M. ward
Ans. A
59. Cell wall of most of the fungi (except oomycetes) is made up of _____
(A) Chitin only
(B) Cellulose only
(C) Chitin and glucans
(D) Glucans only
Ans. C
60. Cell wall of oomycetes fungi is composed of _____
(A) Chitin only
(B) Cellulose only
(C) Glucans only
(D) Glucans and small amounts of cellulose
Ans. D
61. Cell coat consists of ______
(A) Cellulose
(B) Cellulose + Hemicellulose
(C) Protein
(D) Glycocalyx
Ans. D
62. Size of 80 S ribosome is _________
(A) 300-340 Å x 200-240 Å
(B) 250-300 Å x 170-210 Å
(C) 200-290 Å x 170-210 Å
(D) 150-200 Å x 300-340 Å
Ans. A
63. Lipofuscin granules are _____
(A) Primary lysosome
(B) Digestive vacuoles
(C) Newly digested protein
(D) Residual bodies
Ans. D
64. Granna present in a chloroplast is ______
(A) 20-40
(B) 30-40
(C) 40-60
(D) 30-35
Ans. C
65. Spherosomes are related to ______
(A) Chlorophyll
(B) Granna
(C) Fat
(D) Red pigment
Ans. B
66. A cell lacking cell wall is also lack in ______
(A) Chloroplast
(B) Spherosome
(C) Lysosome
(D) Chlorophyll
Ans. A
67. RNA synthesis in nucleus participate in protein synthesis in ______
(A) Nucleus
(B) Cytosol
(C) Mitochondria
(D) Spherosome
Ans. B
68. Streaming of cytoplasm within a living cell is _______
(A) Osmosis
(B) Cyclosis
(C) Diffusion
(D) Autolysis
Ans. B
69. The most suitable temperature for varnalization in plants ranges from
(A) 1-6°C
(B) 7-10°C
(C) 7-9°C
(D) 10-15°C
Ans. A
70. Seed which have life span of few weeks to 4 years are known as _______
(A) Macrobiotic
(B) Microbiotic
(C) Measobiotic
(D) Both A and B
Ans. B
71. The function of decision-making is of _____
(A) Lower Management
(B) Top Management
(C) Middle Management
(D) All level of Management
Ans. D
72. In which planning period we can change the output without altering the size of the plan
(A) Long run
(B) Accounting period
(C) Short run
(D) Base year period
Ans. C
73. In a manufacturing industry generally applies law of _______
(A) Increasing return
(B) Constant return
(C) Decreasing return
(D) All of the above
Ans. B
74. Break-even point is determined by _______
(A) MC = MR
(B) TR = TC
(C) MC = AVC
(D) MC = AC = AR
Ans. B
75. First Land mortgage Bank was set up in madras in the year _______
(A) 1929
(B) 1934
(C) 1921
(D) 1951
Ans. A
76. For purchasing the Pump sets, tractor etc. the loan is distributed by ______
(A) Long term
(B) Medium term
(C) Short term
(D) All of the above
Ans. B
77. Land development Banks are parts of _________
(A) Cooperative banks
(B) Nationalized Banks
(C) Development Banks
(D) Agriculture
Ans. A
78. NABARD act was passed in ______
(A) March 1978
(B) February 1979
(C) January 1979
(D) April 1978
Ans. C
79. Solar energy stored in cells is an example of _______
(A) Non-renewable stock resources
(B) Renewable flow resources
(C) Non-renewable flow resources
(D) Renewable stock resources
Ans. B
80. The subsistence theory of wages was given by ______
(A) David Ricardo
(B) Adam Smith
(C) JM Keynes
(D) Alfred Marshall
Ans. A
81. How much percentage tend to learning by doing (Edgar Dale)
(A) 70
(B) 30
(C) 90
(D) 50
Ans. C
82. Horizontal communication occurs in ________
(A) Birthday party
(B) In hierarchy
(C) Both A and B
(D) None of the above
Ans. A
83. Extension is ______
(A) Single way process
(B) Two way process
(C) Both A and B
(D) None of the above
Ans. B
84. Extension comes under which type of education ______
(A) Informal education
(B) Non formal education
(C) Formal education
(D) None of the above
Ans. B
85. Extension education word first used in ________
(A) Tokyo
(B) USA
(C) England
(D) Germany
Ans. B
86. Extension university term first used in __________
(A) England
(B) India
(C) USA
(D) Tokyo
Ans. A
87. Basic persuasive communication model given by ______
(A) Leagans
(B) Sachram
(C) Aristotle
(D) Berlo
Ans. C
88. ‘Communication’ word is originated from _______ word
(A) Latin word
(B) French word
(C) Greek word
(D) Roman word
Ans. A
89. Political communication model given by ________
(A) Leagans
(B) Sachram
(C) Lasswell
(D) Berlo
Ans. C
90. ‘SOTER’ is an element of _______
(A) Extension education process
(B) Teaching process
(C) Learning process
(D) Involvement process
Ans. A
91. If P(A | B) is the conditional probability of A for given B, Then P (A∩B) is ______
(A) P(A). P(B)
(B) P(A). P (B | A)
(C) P (B | A).P(A | B)
(D) None of these
Ans. D
92. The probability of getting head from a toss of a coin is ______
(A) ½
(B) ⅓
(C) ½, if the coin is perfect
(D) None of these
Ans. C
93. Ogives for more than type and less than type distributions intersect at ______
(A) Mean
(B) Median
(C) Mode
(D) Origin
Ans. B
94. With the help of ogive curve, one can determine
(A) Median
(B) Decile
(C) Percentile
(D) All of the above
Ans. D
95. If a constant value 10 is subtracted from each observation of a set, the mean of the set is _______
(A) Increased by 10
(B) Decreased by 10
(C) Is not affected
(D) Zero
Ans. B
96. If the group data has open end classes, one cannot calculate
(A) Median
(B) Mode
(C) Mean
(D) Quartile
Ans. C
97. Extreme value have no effect on ______
(A) Mean
(B) Median
(C) Geometric mean
(D) Harmonic mean
Ans. B
98. The mean of seven observations is 8. A new observation 16 is added. The mean of eight observation is ______
(A) 12
(B) 9
(C) 8
(D) 24
Ans. B
99. In cases of weighted mean, the accuracy or utility of the mean
(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
(C) Is unaffected
(D) None of the above
Ans. A
100. If the modal value is not clear in a distribution, it can be ascertained by the method of _________
(A) Grouping
(B) Guessing
(C) Summarizing
(D) Trial and error
Ans. A
101. Acacia auriculiformis, an important MPT is native to ________
(A) America
(B) Australia
(C) India
(D) China
Ans. B
102. Generally size of the forest nursery bed is ________
(A) 10 x 1.2 m
(B) 15 x 1.2 m
(C) 12 x 1.5 m
(D) 13 x 1.2
Ans. A
103. Casuarina equisetifolia is a ______
(A) Legumminous tree
(B) Non-Legumminous tree
(C) MPT
(D) All of the above
Ans. B
104. The culmination stage in plant succession for a given ecosystem is called _______
(A) Primary succession
(B) Secondary succession
(C) Climax
(D) All of these
Ans. C
105. In scrub forest canopy density is less than ________
(A) 5%
(B) 7%
(C) 8%
(D) 10%
Ans. D
106. Canopy density for very dense forest _________
(A) > 70%
(B) > 75%
(C) > 80%
(D) > 95%
Ans. A
107. Site index is a term which is the relationship between
(A) Height to age
(B) Volume to age
(C) Increment to age
(D) All of these
Ans. A
108. Removing trees damaged by fire, insect or disease is called
(A) Pollarding
(B) Coppicing
(C) Salvage cut
(D) Clear felling
Ans. C
109. Trees in the 4 inch to 10 inch DBH range are called ______
(A) Bole tree
(B) Pole tree
(C) MPT
(D) All of these
Ans. B
110. Flower and fruits developed from stem of trees is known as ______
(A) Cauliflower
(B) Conifers
(C) Cone
(D) All of these
Ans. A
111. The roots of a plant are converted into drug-producing structures in a process called _____
(A) Microcosm establishment
(B) Rhizosecretion
(C) Mibridization
(D) Bioremediation
Ans. B
112. In positional cloning, the starting point is knowledge of the _________
(A) RNA sequence of the transcript
(B) Isolation of the gene
(C) Insertion of the gene into a vector
(D) DNA sequence flanking the gene
Ans. D
113. The most common plasmid vector used in genetic engineering is _________
(A) PBR 328
(B) PBR 325
(C) PBR 322
(D) PBR 330
Ans. C
114. Variations observed during tissue culture of some plants are known as ________
(A) Clonal variations
(B) Somaclonal variations
(C) Somatic variations
(D) Tissue culture variations
Ans. B
115. Virus free plants can be obtained through ______
(A) Antibiotic treatment
(B) Root tip culture
(C) Bordeaux mixture
(D) Shoot tip culture
Ans. D
116. Which ones produce androgenic haploids in anther cultures?
(A) Anther wall
(B) Connective tissue
(C) Tapetal layer of anther wall
(D) Young pollen-grains
Ans. D
117. Direct DNA uptake by protoplasts can be stimulated by ______
(A) Polyethylene glycol (PEG)
(B) Luciferin
(C) Decanal
(D) All of the above
Ans. A
118. Callus is _______
(A) Tissue that forms embryo
(B) Unorganised actively dividing mass of cells maintained in culture
(C) An insoluble carbohydrate
(D) Tissue that growth to form embryoid
Ans. B
119. Hirudin is obtained from the transgenic plant
(A) Brassica napus
(B) Raphanus sativus
(C) Hibiscus rosasinesis
(D) Vinca rosea
Ans. A
120. A probe is used in which stage of genetic engineering
(A) Cleaving DNA
(B) Cloning
(C) Recombining DNA
(D) Screening
Ans. D
121. The term Mycorrhiza is termed by _______
(A) Ruinen
(B) Hiltner
(C) A.B. Frank (1885)
(D) Winogradsky
Ans. C
122. Musty or Earthy odour of a freshly ploughed field is due to
(A) Nocardia
(B) Streptomyces
(C) Micromonospora
(D) All of the above
Ans. D
123. Which of the following organism play a key role in the transformation of rock to soil
(A) Cyanobacteria
(B) Bacillus
(C) Pseudomonas
(D) Clostridium
Ans. A
124. Organisms involved in non-symbiotic nitrogen fixations are the species of ______
(A) Azotobacter
(B) Cyanobacteria
(C) Clostridium
(D) All of the above
Ans. A
125. ______ is called as Father of Soil Microbiology
(A) Hiltner
(B) Ruinen
(C) Winogradsky
(D) Beijernickia
Ans. C
126. Chemoautotrophy is discovered by ______
(A) Hiltner
(B) Ruinen
(C) Winogradsky
(D) Beijernickia
Ans. C
127. Nitrogen fixing stage of Rhizobium is called _____
(A) Rhizoid
(B) Bacteroid
(C) Viroid
(D) Bacteria
Ans. B
128. Which of the following is a strict anaerobic bacteria
(A) Pseudomonas
(B) Bacillus
(C) E. coli
(D) Methanogenic bacteria
Ans. D
129. Most efficient strains for the oxidation of ammonia to NO2 is ______
(A) Nitrosococcus
(B) Nitrospira
(C) Nitrosomonas
(D) Nitrosolobus
Ans. C
130. Which of the following genera do not contain species that fix nitrogen symbiotically
(A) Rhizobium
(B) Clostridium
(C) Frankia
(D) Anabaena
Ans. B
131. Babbitt is the composition of Tin, Copper and Antimony having % of each element
(A) 80, 5, 15
(B) 70, 15, 15
(C) 85, 11, 4
(D) 84, 7, 9
Ans. D
132. In constant volume combustion the air-fuel mixture is ignited by _________
(A) By compression ignition
(B) By spark plug
(C) By hot tube
(D) By open flame
Ans. B
133. The thermal efficiency of diesel engine varies from _________
(A) 32 to 38%
(B) Both A and C
(C) 25 to 32%
(D) None of the above
Ans. A
134. Compression ratio of petrol engine is varies from _________
(A) 4:1 to 8:1
(B) 14:1 to 22:1
(C) 12:1 to 16:1
(D) Both A and B
Ans. A
135. The compression pressure of diesel engine varies from _________
(A) 30 to 45 kg/cm2
(B) 20 to 30 kg/cm2
(C) 12 to 18 kg/cm2
(D) 6 to 10 kg/cm2
Ans. A
136. The Compression ratio of diesel engine is varies from __________
(A) 4:1 to 8:1
(B) 14:1 to 22:1
(C) 12:1 to 16:1
(D) Both A and B
Ans. B
137. Usually connecting rods are made of __________
(A) Nickel
(B) Copper
(C) Drop forged steel
(D) Steel
Ans. C
138. Piston ring clearance should be ___________
(A) 5mm/200mm diameter of piston
(B) 1mm/200mm diameter of piston
(C) 2.5mm/200mm diameter of piston
(D) 1mm/200mm diameter of piston
Ans. B
139. Most commonly firing order used in 6-cylinder engine
(A) 5-4-3-1-2-6
(B) 1-4-2-6-3-5
(C) 1 -5-3-6-2-4
(D) Both B and C
Ans. D
140. Firing interval for 4-stroke engine is _________
(A) 360°/No. of cylinders
(B) 720°/No. of cylinders
(C) 270°/No. of cylinders
(D) 180°/No. of cylinders
Ans. B
141. What is considered while managing irrigation to crops?
(A) When to irrigate
(B) How to irrigate
(C) How much to irrigate
(D) All of the above
Ans. D
142. Soil degradation takes place due to _________
(A) Accelerated erosion
(B) Glacial erosion
(C) Geological erosion
(D) None of the above
Ans. C
143. Mole drains are suitable for _________
(A) Very coarse soil
(B) Sandy loam soil
(C) Medium coarse soil
(D) Fine textured soil
Ans. D
144. Removal of thin and fairly uniform layer of the soil from the land surface by runoff water and also known as death of farmer
(A) Sheet erosion
(B) Torrent erosion
(C) Glacial erosion
(D) None of the above
Ans. A
145. The Weir, when properly constructed and installed, will be accurate for flow measurement within
(A) 1-2 percent
(B) 2-3 percent
(C) 3-4 percent
(D) 4-5 percent
Ans. B
146. Which type of drainage systems is required, in areas where the primary objective is to maintain the water table beyond the crop root zone?
(A) Surface drainage system
(B) Sub surface drainage system
(C) Both A and B
(D) None of the above
Ans. C
147. Sand dune is associated with _________
(A) Wind erosion
(B) Water erosion
(C) Chemical erosion
(D) None of above
Ans. A
148. Shelterbelts are constructed by ______
(A) One row
(B) Two row
(C) More than two row
(D) All of above
Ans. C
149. A shelterbelt will be more effective for wind erosion control, when it is constituted by _________
(A) Eucalyptus
(B) Ber
(C) Eucalyptus + ber
(D) All of these
Ans. C
150. Wind break direction should be _________
(A) North-West
(B) South-East
(C) East-West
(D) None of above
Ans. A