Agriculture and Rural Development Questions for Nabard

Agriculture and Rural Development Questions for Nabard!

1. Natural farming was advocated by _______

(A) Gilbert

(B) Fakuoka

(D) Norman E. Borlaug

Ans. B

2. Imperial Agricultural Research Institute was established in ________

(A) 1905

(B) 1915

(D) 1935

Ans. A

3. Department of Agriculture (in the world) was first established during _______

(A) 1853

(B) 1872

(D) 1892

Ans. C

4. In India, Agriculture Department was established by ______

(A) Lord Ribbon, 1861

(B) Lord Mayoa, 1871

(D) Lord Cornnwallish, 1891

Ans. B

5. Separate Central Agriculture Department was started in ________

(A) 1907

(B) 1871

(D) 1891

Ans. C

6. AICRP on Maize was started in __________

(A) 1942

(B) 1955

(D) 1965

Ans. C

7. AICRP on Dryland Agriculture was started in _________

(A) 1961

(B) 1971

(D) 1991

Ans. B

8. Father of Tillage

(A) Pietro de crescengi

(B) Jethro Tull

(D) Fukuoka

Ans. B

9. The average land availability per person globally is about ________ ha

(A) 3.0

(B) 3.8

(D) 0.8

Ans. B

10. The average land availability per person in India is about ________ ha

(A) 3.0

(B) 3.8

(D) 0.8

Ans. D

11. Gametes are usually _____ cells

(A) Diploid

(B) Germ

(D) Polyploid

Ans. C

12. Auxanometer is used to measure

(A) Transpiration rate

(B) Growth of the plant

(D) TSS

Ans. B

13. Which is an antioxidant

(A) Vitamin C

(B) Sugar

(D) Ethylene

Ans. A

14. Indian Institute of Vegetable Research (IIVR) is situated at _____

(A) New Delhi

(B) Hyderabad

(D) Kolkata

Ans. C

15. Mass selection is practiced on the basis of _____

(A) Genotype

(B) Environment

(D) All of the above

Ans. C

16. Double grafting is done to overcome

(A) Poor bud intake

(B) Translocated incompatibility

(D) Localized incompatibility

Ans. D

17. Which of the following is an Ethylene absorbent

(A) NaOH

(B) K₂SO₄

(D) KMnO₄

Ans. D

18. Seed stores the phosphorous in the form of _____

(A) Chitin

(B) Chromatin

(D) Zeatin

Ans. C

19. Which is the most commonly used solidifying agent in plant tissue culture media

(A) Agar

(B) Starch

(D) Glucose

Ans. A

20. Where is the Central Institute of Medicinal and Aromatic Plants Located?

(A) Calicut

(B) Lucknow

(D) Bhopal

Ans. B

21. Plant cells surrounded by a non-living and rigid coat called _____

(A) Cell wall

(B) Mitochondrial wall

(D) Ribo wall

Ans. A

22. The chemical that prevents nuclear division without affecting the progress of various phases of cell division

(A) Proline

(B) Colchicine

(D) Chromatin

Ans. B

23. Which of the following has clover leaf secondary structure

(A) mRNA

(B) snRNA

(D) rRNA

Ans. C

24. The nucleosome histone octamer does not contain which of the following histones

(A) H2A

(B) H1

(D) H3

Ans. B

25. Who discovered mitochondria?

(A) Hollicker

(B) Benda

(D) Boveri

Ans. A

26. Which of the following does not contain DNA

(A) Chloroplast

(B) Mitochondria

(D) Nucleus

Ans. C

27. Schlieden and Schwan jointly proposed which of the following theories

(A) Theory of evolution

(B) Theory of pure-lines

(D) Cell theory

Ans. D

28. The folded fibre model of chromosome structure was proposed by _____

(A) Kornberg

(B) Taylor

(D) Thomas

Ans. B

29. Which of the following histones is lysine rich

(A) H1

(B) H3

(D) Both H1 and H3

Ans. A

30. Which part of chromosomes contains constitutive heterochromatin?

(A) Chromomere

(B) Centromere

(D) Both B and C

Ans. D

31. A mineral called heavy when specific gravity (gm/cc) is _____

(A) > 2.85

(B) < 2.85

(D) < 3.85

Ans. A

32. Physical weathering dominant in _______

(A) Humid

(B) Tropical

(D) Dry and cool

Ans. D

33. Most resistant mineral in soil

(A) Olivine

(B) Quartz

(D) Muscovite

Ans. B

34. Tourmaline is a source of element

(A) Mo

(B) B

(D) Zn

Ans. B

35. Mo bearing mineral

(A) Tourmaline

(B) Olivine

(D) Dolomite

Ans. B

36. Which soil found maximum area in India?

(A) Entisol

(B) Inceptisol

(D) Vertisol

Ans. B

37. “Microrelief and gilgai effect” found in which soil

(A) Vertisol

(B) Inceptisol

(D) Gelisol

Ans. A

38. The order of degradation of plant composition

(A) Sugar > Starch > Protein > Hemicelluloses > Cellulose > Lignin

(B) Starch > Sugar > Protein > Hemicelluloses > Cellulose > Lignin

(D) Sugar> Starch > Protein > Lignin > Cellulose > Hemicellulose

Ans. A

39. When organic residue added in soil which organism attack first

(A) Bacteria

(B) Fungi

(D) All of the above

Ans. A

40. The organic fraction soluble in both acid and alkali

(A) Fulvic

(B) Humic

(D) Geosmin

Ans. A

41. The function of peritrophic membrane is _________

(A) Absorption

(B) Protection

(D) None of these

Ans. B

42. The spiracles are absent in which of the following insects:

(A) Cecidomyid larvae

(B) Mycetophilid larvae

(D) Psycodid larvae

Ans. C

43. The alimentary canal of insect is derived from __________

(A) Ectoderm

(B) Endoderm

(D) Endoderm and mesoderm

Ans. C

44. Most of the caterpillars have abdominal legs on segments:

(A) 2 to 5 and 10

(B) 6 to 10

(D) 5 to 8 and 10

Ans. C

45. Number of abdominal legs found in the larvae of mustard sawfly is _____

(A) 4 pairs

(B) 8 pairs

(D) 10 pairs

Ans. B

46. The terminal abdominal segments 6-9 are telescoped within the segment 5 when not in use. This condition is found in _____

(A) House fly

(B) Dragonfly

(D) Butterfly

Ans. A

47. Prostheca is associated with _____

(A) Antennae

(B) Mandibles

(D) Cuticle

Ans. B

48. Moulting fluid is able to digest:

(A) Cement layer

(B) Endocuticle

(D) Cuticulin layer

Ans. B

49. Most of the insects excrete 80 to 90 per cent of their nitrogenous waste in the form of _____

(A) Urea

(B) Ammonia

(D) Ammonium Nitrate

Ans. C

50. In which Organelle, protein synthesis takes place:

(A) Nucleus

(B) Ribosome

(D) All of these

Ans. B

51. The Romans used to celebrate a festival, “Robigalia” on 25^th April to ward off which disease that was initiated by king Numa Pomplius

(A) Wheat Rust

(B) Barley Smut

(D) Barley Rust

Ans. A

52. Which is the first phanerogamic plant parasite to be recognized as such and the first pathogen for which a cultural control (by pruning affected branches) was recommended by Albertus Magnus (1200 A. D.)

(A) Cuscuta

(B) Striga

(D) Loranthus

Ans. C

53. The first seed health testing was established in 1918 (Government seed Testing Station) in which country?

(A) England

(B) New Zealand

(D) Netherland

Ans. D

54. Who was the first official seed pathologist?

(A) Dr. Lucie Doyer

(B) R.J. Cook

(D) Oscar Loewi

Ans. A

55. The first quarantine station was established for sugarcane in ______

(A) England

(B) Hawaii

(D) Indonesia

Ans. B

56. The first book wholly devoted to biological control of plant pathogens was published by whom entitled “Biological Control of Plant Pathogens”

(A) E.J. Butler

(B) K.F. Baker and R.J. Cook

(D) Hawker and abbot

Ans. B

57. ‘St. Anthony’s fire’ is associated with _____

(A) Puccinia

(B) Peronospora

(D) Claviceps

Ans. D

58. Gene for gene hypothesis was given by _____

(A) Harold H. Flor

(B) E.J. Butler

(D) H.M. ward

Ans. A

59. Cell wall of most of the fungi (except oomycetes) is made up of _____

(A) Chitin only

(B) Cellulose only

(D) Glucans only

Ans. C

60. Cell wall of oomycetes fungi is composed of _____

(A) Chitin only

(B) Cellulose only

(D) Glucans and small amounts of cellulose

Ans. D

61. Cell coat consists of ______

(A) Cellulose

(B) Cellulose + Hemicellulose

(D) Glycocalyx

Ans. D

62. Size of 80 S ribosome is _________

(A) 300-340 Å x 200-240 Å

(B) 250-300 Å x 170-210 Å

(D) 150-200 Å x 300-340 Å

Ans. A

63. Lipofuscin granules are _____

(A) Primary lysosome

(B) Digestive vacuoles

(D) Residual bodies

Ans. D

64. Granna present in a chloroplast is ______

(A) 20-40

(B) 30-40

(D) 30-35

Ans. C

65. Spherosomes are related to ______

(A) Chlorophyll

(B) Granna

(D) Red pigment

Ans. B

66. A cell lacking cell wall is also lack in ______

(A) Chloroplast

(B) Spherosome

(D) Chlorophyll

Ans. A

67. RNA synthesis in nucleus participate in protein synthesis in ______

(A) Nucleus

(B) Cytosol

(D) Spherosome

Ans. B

68. Streaming of cytoplasm within a living cell is _______

(A) Osmosis

(B) Cyclosis

(D) Autolysis

Ans. B

69. The most suitable temperature for varnalization in plants ranges from

(A) 1-6°C

(B) 7-10°C

(D) 10-15°C

Ans. A

70. Seed which have life span of few weeks to 4 years are known as _______

(A) Macrobiotic

(B) Microbiotic

(D) Both A and B

Ans. B

71. The function of decision-making is of _____

(A) Lower Management

(B) Top Management

(D) All level of Management

Ans. D

72. In which planning period we can change the output without altering the size of the plan

(A) Long run

(B) Accounting period

(D) Base year period

Ans. C

73. In a manufacturing industry generally applies law of _______

(A) Increasing return

(B) Constant return

(D) All of the above

Ans. B

74. Break-even point is determined by _______

(A) MC = MR

(B) TR = TC

(D) MC = AC = AR

Ans. B

75. First Land mortgage Bank was set up in madras in the year _______

(A) 1929

(B) 1934

(D) 1951

Ans. A

76. For purchasing the Pump sets, tractor etc. the loan is distributed by ______

(A) Long term

(B) Medium term

(D) All of the above

Ans. B

77. Land development Banks are parts of _________

(A) Cooperative banks

(B) Nationalized Banks

(D) Agriculture

Ans. A

78. NABARD act was passed in ______

(A) March 1978

(B) February 1979

(D) April 1978

Ans. C

79. Solar energy stored in cells is an example of _______

(A) Non-renewable stock resources

(B) Renewable flow resources

(D) Renewable stock resources

Ans. B

80. The subsistence theory of wages was given by ______

(A) David Ricardo

(B) Adam Smith

(D) Alfred Marshall

Ans. A

81. How much percentage tend to learning by doing (Edgar Dale)

(A) 70

(B) 30

(D) 50

Ans. C

82. Horizontal communication occurs in ________

(A) Birthday party

(B) In hierarchy

(D) None of the above

Ans. A

83. Extension is ______

(A) Single way process

(B) Two way process

(D) None of the above

Ans. B

84. Extension comes under which type of education ______

(A) Informal education

(B) Non formal education

(D) None of the above

Ans. B

85. Extension education word first used in ________

(A) Tokyo

(B) USA

(D) Germany

Ans. B

86. Extension university term first used in __________

(A) England

(B) India

(D) Tokyo

Ans. A

87. Basic persuasive communication model given by ______

(A) Leagans

(B) Sachram

(D) Berlo

Ans. C

88. ‘Communication’ word is originated from _______ word

(A) Latin word

(B) French word

(D) Roman word

Ans. A

89. Political communication model given by ________

(A) Leagans

(B) Sachram

(D) Berlo

Ans. C

90. ‘SOTER’ is an element of _______

(A) Extension education process

(B) Teaching process

(D) Involvement process

Ans. A

91. If P(A | B) is the conditional probability of A for given B, Then P (A∩B) is ______

(A) P(A). P(B)

(B) P(A). P (B | A)

(D) None of these

Ans. D

92. The probability of getting head from a toss of a coin is ______

(A) ½

(B) ⅓

(D) None of these

Ans. C

93. Ogives for more than type and less than type distributions intersect at ______

(A) Mean

(B) Median

(D) Origin

Ans. B

94. With the help of ogive curve, one can determine

(A) Median

(B) Decile

(D) All of the above

Ans. D

95. If a constant value 10 is subtracted from each observation of a set, the mean of the set is _______

(A) Increased by 10

(B) Decreased by 10

(D) Zero

Ans. B

96. If the group data has open end classes, one cannot calculate

(A) Median

(B) Mode

(D) Quartile

Ans. C

97. Extreme value have no effect on ______

(A) Mean

(B) Median

(D) Harmonic mean

Ans. B

98. The mean of seven observations is 8. A new observation 16 is added. The mean of eight observation is ______

(A) 12

(B) 9

(D) 24

Ans. B

99. In cases of weighted mean, the accuracy or utility of the mean

(A) Increases

(B) Decreases

(D) None of the above

Ans. A

100. If the modal value is not clear in a distribution, it can be ascertained by the method of _________

(A) Grouping

(B) Guessing

(D) Trial and error

Ans. A

101. Acacia auriculiformis, an important MPT is native to ________

(A) America

(B) Australia

(D) China

Ans. B

102. Generally size of the forest nursery bed is ________

(A) 10 x 1.2 m

(B) 15 x 1.2 m

(D) 13 x 1.2

Ans. A

103. Casuarina equisetifolia is a ______

(A) Legumminous tree

(B) Non-Legumminous tree

(D) All of the above

Ans. B

104. The culmination stage in plant succession for a given ecosystem is called _______

(A) Primary succession

(B) Secondary succession

(D) All of these

Ans. C

105. In scrub forest canopy density is less than ________

(A) 5%

(B) 7%

(D) 10%

Ans. D

106. Canopy density for very dense forest _________

(A) > 70%

(B) > 75%

(D) > 95%

Ans. A

107. Site index is a term which is the relationship between

(A) Height to age

(B) Volume to age

(D) All of these

Ans. A

108. Removing trees damaged by fire, insect or disease is called

(A) Pollarding

(B) Coppicing

(D) Clear felling

Ans. C

109. Trees in the 4 inch to 10 inch DBH range are called ______

(A) Bole tree

(B) Pole tree

(D) All of these

Ans. B

110. Flower and fruits developed from stem of trees is known as ______

(A) Cauliflower

(B) Conifers

(D) All of these

Ans. A

111. The roots of a plant are converted into drug-producing structures in a process called _____

(A) Microcosm establishment

(B) Rhizosecretion

(D) Bioremediation

Ans. B

112. In positional cloning, the starting point is knowledge of the _________

(A) RNA sequence of the transcript

(B) Isolation of the gene

(D) DNA sequence flanking the gene

Ans. D

113. The most common plasmid vector used in genetic engineering is _________

(A) PBR 328

(B) PBR 325

(D) PBR 330

Ans. C

114. Variations observed during tissue culture of some plants are known as ________

(A) Clonal variations

(B) Somaclonal variations

(D) Tissue culture variations

Ans. B

115. Virus free plants can be obtained through ______

(A) Antibiotic treatment

(B) Root tip culture

(D) Shoot tip culture

Ans. D

116. Which ones produce androgenic haploids in anther cultures?

(A) Anther wall

(B) Connective tissue

(D) Young pollen-grains

Ans. D

117. Direct DNA uptake by protoplasts can be stimulated by ______

(A) Polyethylene glycol (PEG)

(B) Luciferin

(D) All of the above

Ans. A

118. Callus is _______

(A) Tissue that forms embryo

(B) Unorganised actively dividing mass of cells maintained in culture

(D) Tissue that growth to form embryoid

Ans. B

119. Hirudin is obtained from the transgenic plant

(A) Brassica napus

(B) Raphanus sativus

(D) Vinca rosea

Ans. A

120. A probe is used in which stage of genetic engineering

(A) Cleaving DNA

(B) Cloning

(D) Screening

Ans. D

121. The term Mycorrhiza is termed by _______

(A) Ruinen

(B) Hiltner

(D) Winogradsky

Ans. C

122. Musty or Earthy odour of a freshly ploughed field is due to

(A) Nocardia

(B) Streptomyces

(D) All of the above

Ans. D

123. Which of the following organism play a key role in the transformation of rock to soil

(A) Cyanobacteria

(B) Bacillus

(D) Clostridium

Ans. A

124. Organisms involved in non-symbiotic nitrogen fixations are the species of ______

(A) Azotobacter

(B) Cyanobacteria

(D) All of the above

Ans. A

125. ______ is called as Father of Soil Microbiology

(A) Hiltner

(B) Ruinen

(D) Beijernickia

Ans. C

126. Chemoautotrophy is discovered by ______

(A) Hiltner

(B) Ruinen

(D) Beijernickia

Ans. C

127. Nitrogen fixing stage of Rhizobium is called _____

(A) Rhizoid

(B) Bacteroid

(D) Bacteria

Ans. B

128. Which of the following is a strict anaerobic bacteria

(A) Pseudomonas

(B) Bacillus

(D) Methanogenic bacteria

Ans. D

129. Most efficient strains for the oxidation of ammonia to NO² is ______

(A) Nitrosococcus

(B) Nitrospira

(D) Nitrosolobus

Ans. C

130. Which of the following genera do not contain species that fix nitrogen symbiotically

(A) Rhizobium

(B) Clostridium

(D) Anabaena

Ans. B

131. Babbitt is the composition of Tin, Copper and Antimony having % of each element

(A) 80, 5, 15

(B) 70, 15, 15

(D) 84, 7, 9

Ans. D

132. In constant volume combustion the air-fuel mixture is ignited by _________

(A) By compression ignition

(B) By spark plug

(D) By open flame

Ans. B

133. The thermal efficiency of diesel engine varies from _________

(A) 32 to 38%

(B) Both A and C

(D) None of the above

Ans. A

134. Compression ratio of petrol engine is varies from _________

(A) 4:1 to 8:1

(B) 14:1 to 22:1

(D) Both A and B

Ans. A

135. The compression pressure of diesel engine varies from _________

(A) 30 to 45 kg/cm²

(B) 20 to 30 kg/cm²

(D) 6 to 10 kg/cm²

Ans. A

136. The Compression ratio of diesel engine is varies from __________

(A) 4:1 to 8:1

(B) 14:1 to 22:1

(D) Both A and B

Ans. B

137. Usually connecting rods are made of __________

(A) Nickel

(B) Copper

(D) Steel

Ans. C

138. Piston ring clearance should be ___________

(A) 5mm/200mm diameter of piston

(B) 1mm/200mm diameter of piston

(D) 1mm/200mm diameter of piston

Ans. B

139. Most commonly firing order used in 6-cylinder engine

(A) 5-4-3-1-2-6

(B) 1-4-2-6-3-5

(D) Both B and C

Ans. D

140. Firing interval for 4-stroke engine is _________

(A) 360°/No. of cylinders

(B) 720°/No. of cylinders

(D) 180°/No. of cylinders

Ans. B

141. What is considered while managing irrigation to crops?

(A) When to irrigate

(B) How to irrigate

(D) All of the above

Ans. D

142. Soil degradation takes place due to _________

(A) Accelerated erosion

(B) Glacial erosion

(D) None of the above

Ans. C

143. Mole drains are suitable for _________

(A) Very coarse soil

(B) Sandy loam soil

(D) Fine textured soil

Ans. D

144. Removal of thin and fairly uniform layer of the soil from the land surface by runoff water and also known as death of farmer

(A) Sheet erosion

(B) Torrent erosion

(D) None of the above

Ans. A

145. The Weir, when properly constructed and installed, will be accurate for flow measurement within

(A) 1-2 percent

(B) 2-3 percent

(D) 4-5 percent

Ans. B

146. Which type of drainage systems is required, in areas where the primary objective is to maintain the water table beyond the crop root zone?

(A) Surface drainage system

(B) Sub surface drainage system

(D) None of the above

Ans. C

147. Sand dune is associated with _________

(A) Wind erosion

(B) Water erosion

(D) None of above

Ans. A

148. Shelterbelts are constructed by ______

(A) One row

(B) Two row

(D) All of above

Ans. C

149. A shelterbelt will be more effective for wind erosion control, when it is constituted by _________

(A) Eucalyptus

(B) Ber

(D) All of these

Ans. C

150. Wind break direction should be _________

(A) North-West

(B) South-East

(D) None of above

Ans. A