Interview Questions on Agriculture for Field Officers (With Answers)

Interview Questions on Agriculture for Field Officers (With Answers)!

1. The cultivation per capita land availability world-wide is about ________ ha

(A) 0.3

(B) 0.38

(D) 0.8

Ans. A

2. The cultivation per capita land availability in India is about _________ ha

(A) 0.3

(B) 3.8

(D) 0.5

Ans. C

3. Norman E. Borlaug got Nobel Prize in the Field of _______

(A) Agriculture

(B) Medicine

(D) Peace

Ans. D

4. ‘Farmer first’ concept was proposed by ________

(A) Paul Leagans

(B) Neils Rolling

(D) Indira Gandhi

Ans. C

5. In how many classes did Krishnan and Singh (1972) divided the climate on the basis of Moisture deficit index?

(A) 10

(B) 8

(D) 4

Ans. B

6. The term Meteorology is derived from ________

(A) Latin word

(B) Greek word

(D) Arabic word

Ans. B

7. The Climatology is a __________

(A) Greek word

(B) Latin word

(D) German

Ans. A

8. International Meteorological (IMO) was established during _________

(A) 1898

(B) 1928

(D) 1958

Ans. C

9. The Division of Agriculture Meteorology at Pune was started in __________

(A) 1912

(B) 1922

(D) 1942

Ans. C

10. Weather pertains to a __________

(A) Long period of time

(B) Short duration

(D) None

Ans. B

11. During which year the Fruit Product Order Act was implemented

(A) 1988

(B) 1977

(D) 1955

Ans. D

12. Which pigment triggers seed germination

(A) Crytochrome

(B) Carotene

(D) Cytochrome

Ans. C

13. Bt – gene is used to develop resistance against _____ insects

(A) Lepidoptera

(B) Homoptera

(D) Diptera

Ans. A

14. Sea Cucumber is a _____

(A) Vegetable

(B) Flower

(D) Animal

Ans. D

15. Directorate of Plant Protection Quarantine and Storage (DPPQS) is located at _____

(A) Faridabad

(B) Hyderabad

(D) Chennai

Ans. A

16. Term heterosis was coined by _____

(A) Dc Vries

(B) Hugens

(D) Mendel

Ans. C

17. Negative heterosis is used for the trait

(A) Fruit number

(B) Days of maturity

(D) Recovery ratio

Ans. B

18. Journal “Vegetable Science” is published from _____

(A) New Delhi

(B) Varanasi

(D) Hyderabad

Ans. B

19. Generally in vegetable crops, loss due to weeds is around

(A) 10-15%

(B) 15-20%

(D) 35-40%

Ans. D

20. First company to supply vegetable seeds in India

(A) Pochas

(B) Sutton & Sons

(D) MAHYCO

Ans. B

21. In a karyotype representation, which of the following chromosome is placed at the extreme right

(A) Largest chromosome

(B) Y chromosome

(D) X chromosome

Ans. C

22. The one-gene-one-enzyme hypothesis was originally postulated by _____

(A) Watson and Crick

(B) Beadle and Tatum

(D) Shull

Ans. B

23. Loss of chromosome segment is known as _____

(A) Deletion

(B) Duplication

(D) Inversion

Ans. A

24. Which of the following produces the pseudo-dominance

(A) Inversion

(B) Deletion

(D) Duplication

Ans. B

25. In Patau’s syndrome, which of the following chromosomes is involved _____

(A) 21

(B) 16

(D) 18

Ans. C

26. Turner’s syndrome is associated with which of the following

(A) X chromosome

(B) Y chromosome

(D) Both X and Y chromosome

Ans. D

27. Who is known as “father of genetics”

(A) Darwin

(B) Borlaug

(D) Mendel

Ans. D

28. Colchicine is extracted from which of the following

(A) Allium cepa

(B) Triticum aestivum

(D) Rosa indica

Ans. C

29. Which of the following aqueous solutions of colchicine is usually applied for chromosome doubling

(A) 0.05%

(B) 0.1%

(D) 0.5%

Ans. C

30. Colchicine disturbs which of the following

(A) DNA synthesis

(B) Spindle fibre formation

(D) Chromosome condensation

Ans. B

31. The C:N ratio of cultivated soil

(A) 5:1

(B) 20:1

(D) 5-20:1

Ans. C

32. Organic carbon present in organic matter

(A) 48%

(B) 58%

(D) 38%

Ans. B

33. Which soil enzyme works under the breakdown of urea?

(A) Protease

(B) Cellulase

(D) Amylase

Ans. C

34. C:N ratio of soil is > 30:1 which process occur

(A) Mineralization

(B) Immobilization

(D) None of the above

Ans. B

35. The process of changing organic to inorganic form is called _____

(A) Mineralization

(B) Immobilization

(D) Laterization

Ans. A

36. Particle size of silt according to ISSS/IUSS

(A) 0.05mm

(B) 0.5 mm

(D) 0.2 mm

Ans. C

37. A soil has at least 40% clay and < 40% silt is known as _____

(A) Sandy clay

(B) Silty clay

(D) None of the above

Ans. C

38. Relative proportion of sand, silt and clay is called _____

(A) Soil texture

(B) Soil structure

(D) Peds

Ans. A

39. Which soil structure found in arid and semi-arid region

(A) Blocky

(B) Prismatic

(D) Platy

Ans. B

40. Soil strength is measured by ________

(A) Infiltrometer

(B) Penetrometer

(D) Barometer

Ans. B

41. Insects feeding on plants of several genera within a family are called _____

(A) Monophagous

(B) Polyphagous

(D) Phytophagous

Ans. C

42. Factor on which penetration of insecticide through insect cuticle does not depend:

(A) Thickness of cuticle

(B) Components of cuticle

(D) Nature of carriers and solvents

Ans. A

43. Insect pathogenic viruses belong to the Family:

(A) Bacillaceae

(B) Aphelinidae

(D) Baculoviridae

Ans. D

44. Period between two moults is known as ________

(A) Instar

(B) Larval period

(D) Incubation period

Ans. C

45. Steps involved in classical biological control are:

(A) Conservation and encouragement of indigenous natural enemies

(B) Augmentation

(D) All of these

Ans. D

46. Hexudecenal is sex pheromone of _____

(A) Heliothis armigera

(B) Trichoplusia nigra

(D) None of these

Ans. A

47. Snow fleas are found in the order:

(A) Stresiptera

(B) Collembola

(D) Dermaptera

Ans. B

48. Bacillus thuringiensis was reported by Berliner from:

(A) Tribolium

(B) Ephestia

(D) Spodoptera

Ans. B

49. Berlese theory was proposed to explain the origin of _____

(A) Egg stage

(B) Pupal stage

(D) Adult stage

Ans. B

50. Basic unit of Classification is known as ________

(A) Species

(B) Family

(D) Order

Ans. A

51. The small tubular thread like filaments of the fungi is known as hyphae. These hyphae form long filamentous networks which are called as ______

(A) Thallas

(B) Mycellium (Mycelia)

(D) Spore

Ans. B

52. Which of the following is/are asexual spore/s of fungi?

(A) Conidia

(B) Chlamydospores

(D) Both A and C

Ans. D

53. Which of the following is/are sexual spore/s of fungi?

(A) Oospores

(B) Zygospores

(D) All of the above

Ans. D

54. Basidiospores are _____

(A) Sexual spores

(B) Asexual spores

(D) Parasexual spore

Ans. A

55. Reproduction in fungi may possible through _____

(A) Sexual spores

(B) Asexual spores

(D) All of the above

Ans. D

56. Which of the following is a spore?

(A) Zoospore – Pythium, Phytophthora

(B) Chlamydospore – Fusarium

(D) Rhizomorph – Armillaria mellea

Ans. A

57. Body of a fungus is called as _____

(A) Hyphae

(B) Mycelium

(D) Conidiophore

Ans. C

58. A simple cross walls found in fungal mycelium is called as septum. The aseptate type thallus is/are found in which group of fungi

(A) Mastigomycotina (Oomycetes)

(B) Zygomycotina (Rhizopus Mucor)

(D) None of the above

Ans. C

59. Which is/are the mycelium modification of fungi

(A) Rhizomorph (Armillaria)

(B) Sclerotia (Sclerotium, Cleviceps)

(D) All of the above

Ans. D

60. Structures like Rhizoids, Perithecium, Haustoria, Appressorium and Traps are

(A) Spore

(B) Mycelium modifications

(D) None of the above

Ans. B

61. The small tubular thread like filaments of the fungi is known as hyphae. These hyphae form long filamentous networks which are called as ______

(A) Thallas

(B) Mycellium (Mycelia)

(D) Spore

Ans. B

62. Which of the following is/are asexual spore/s of fungi?

(A) Conidia

(B) Chlamydospores

(D) Both A and C

Ans. D

63. Which of the following is/are sexual spore/s of fungi?

(A) Oospores

(B) Zygospores

(D) All of the above

Ans. D

64. Basidiospores are _____

(A) Sexual spores

(B) Asexual spores

(D) Parasexual spore

Ans. A

65. Reproduction in fungi may possible through _____

(A) Sexual spores

(B) Asexual spores

(D) All of the above

Ans. D

66. Which of the following is a spore?

(A) Zoospore – Pythium, Phytophthora

(B) Chlamydospore – Fusarium

(D) Rhizomorph – Armillaria mellea

Ans. A

67. Body of a fungus is called as _____

(A) Hyphae

(B) Mycelium

(D) Conidiophore

Ans. C

68. A simple cross walls found in fungal mycelium is called as septum. The aseptate type thallus is/are found in which group of fungi

(A) Mastigomycotina (Oomycetes)

(B) Zygomycotina (Rhizopus Mucor)

(D) None of the above

Ans. C

69. Which is/are the mycelium modification of fungi

(A) Rhizomorph (Armillaria)

(B) Sclerotia (Sclerotium, Cleviceps)

(D) All of the above

Ans. D

70. Structures like Rhizoids, Perithecium, Haustoria, Appressorium and Traps are

(A) Spore

(B) Mycelium modifications

(D) None of the above

Ans. B

71. Which is germination stimulatory substance

(A) Thioura

(B) KNO₃

(D) K₂SO₄

Ans. C

72. Cereals seed rich in _______

(A) Glutelins and Prolamins

(B) Globulins

(D) Glysin

Ans. A

73. Legume seeds are rich in _________

(A) Globulins

(B) Glysin

(D) Glutamin

Ans. A

74. Chemically pure water have ______ water potential

(A) -0.4 MPa

(B) -0.5 MPa

(D) -0.7 MPa

Ans. C

75. The highest osmotic pressure in ______

(A) Hydrophyte

(B) Mesophyte

(D) None of the above

Ans. B

76. The value of diffusion pressure deficit of a cell is _______

(A) OP + TP

(B) OP + PP

(D) All of the above

Ans. C

77. The highest imbibing capacity in ______

(A) Lipid

(B) Cellulose

(D) Fat

Ans. C

78. Water logged soil is ______

(A) Physically dry

(B) Physiologically dry

(D) None of the above

Ans. B

79. Which water is available to plant?

(A) Gravitational water

(B) Capillary water

(D) Both A and C

Ans. B

80. Essential element for Auxin/IAA synthesis is ______

(A) Zn

(B) Ca

(D) B

Ans. A

81. Examining the degree of correlation between different explanatory variables in a linear regression model is a process of ________

(A) Autocorrelation

(B) Heteroscedasticity

(D) Multicolinearity

Ans. D

82. Mathematical statistics deals with the model developed on the basis of ________

(A) Time series data

(B) Secondary data

(D) Experimental data

Ans. D

83. The problem of structural change may occur generally in _______

(A) Cross Section data

(B) Time series data

(D) Experimental data

Ans. B

84. The cost incurred by a farmer for pumping irrigation water is a _______

(A) Fixed cost

(B) Marginal cost

(D) Average cost

Ans. B

85. Which of the following is correct _________

(A) Nominal GDP never equal real GDP

(B) Nominal GDP equals real GDP in all years but the base year

(D) Nominal GDP equals real GDP in the base year

Ans. D

86. In relationship between TP and MP, which one is not true?

(A) When TP increases, MP is positive

(B) When TP is constant, MP is Zero

(D) When TP is maximum, MP is Maximum

Ans. D

87. Aggregate measure of support refers to ______

(A) Taxation

(B) Subsidy

(D) Price

Ans. B

88. Which one of the following is “Cost-push Inflation?”

(A) Increased consumption expenditure

(B) Reduction in taxation

(D) Increase in wages and salaries

Ans. D

89. Data collection at one point of time is called _______

(A) Cross section data

(B) Time series data

(D) None of the above

Ans. A

90. The IRR is defined at a discount rate for which NPV is _______

(A) Greater than one

(B) Equal to zero

(D) None of the above

Ans. B

91. Art of communication is ________

(A) Listening

(B) Saying

(D) Treatment

Ans. A

92. Homogenous learner occurs in _________

(A) Adult education

(B) Formal education

(D) All of the above

Ans. B

93. Effective motivation is __________

(A) Extrinsic motivation

(B) Intrinsic motivation

(D) None of the above

Ans. B

94. The process by which an individual, through one’s own efforts and abilities change the behavior

(A) Teaching

(B) Learning

(D) All of the above

Ans. B

95. Desirable change in human behavior (knowledge, attitude, skill) is __________

(A) Education

(B) Communication

(D) Management

Ans. A

96. High yielding variety programme (HYVP) was launched in _______

(A) 1866

(B) 1966

(D) None of the above

Ans. B

97. In PRA ‘A’ stands for ______

(A) Agricultural

(B) Assessment

(D) Advertisement

Ans. C

98. In CPM ‘P’ stands for ______

(A) Participatory

(B) Political

(D) Path

Ans. D

99. Gurgaon experiment programme started in 1920, which is started by __________

(A) Lord Curzon

(B) F.L. Brayne

(D) Vinoba Bhave

Ans. B

100. Integrated Rural Development Programme (IRDP), started in which year

(A) 1972-73

(B) 1978-79

(D) 1989-90

Ans. B

101. Geometric mean can be used to find out

(A) Population growth

(B) Growth rate of GNP

(D) None of the above

Ans. C

102. Sum of the deviation about mean is ______

(A) Zero

(B) Maximum

(D) One

Ans. A

103. Sum of the absolute deviation about median is _________

(A) Zero

(B) Maximum

(D) One

Ans. C

104. Sum of the square deviation about mean is _________

(A) Zero

(B) Minimum

(D) One

Ans. B

105. The point of intersection of two cumulative frequency curve provides

(A) Mean

(B) Mode

(D) First quartile

Ans. C

106. Which measure of dispersion is known as best measure of dispersion?

(A) S.D.

(B) Variance

(D) C.V.

Ans. A

107. Formula for C.V. is _________

(A) (S.D./Mean) x 100

(B) (Mean/S.D.) x 100

(D) 100/(Mean x S.D.)

Ans. A

108. For comparison of two different series, the best measure of dispersion

(A) Range

(B) S.D.

(D) C.V.

Ans. D

109. For a Positively skewed distribution, the correct inequality is _________

(A) Mean > Median > mode

(B) Mean < Median < mode

(D) None of the above

Ans. A

110. For a Negatively skewed distribution, the correct inequality is _______

(A) Mean > Median > mode

(B) Mean < Median < mode

(D) None of the above

Ans. B

111. Biggest CO₂ sink is ______

(A) Tropical forest

(B) Tropical Rain forest

(D) Tropical Dry forest

Ans. B

112. Teak is naturally found in ________

(A) Tropical deciduous forest

(B) Tropical Rain forest

(D) All of these

Ans. B

113. Sal flowering period is __________

(A) June-August

(B) November-December

(D) March-April

Ans. C

114. Champion and Seth classified the Indian forest in major groups

(A) 2

(B) 3

(D) 5

Ans. D

115. Generally bamboo flowers once in __________

(A) 10-25 year

(B) 25-40 year

(D) 45-50 year

Ans. B

116. Which toxin was contain in Subabul

(A) Mimosene

(B) Azadirachta

(D) All of these

Ans. A

117. Populus deltoises belongs to family

(A) Poacea

(B) Fabacea

(D) Salicacea

Ans. D

118. Biltmore stick is used to measure

(A) Height

(B) Increment

(D) All of these

Ans. C

119. The instrument used to determine the age of tree is __________

(A) Callipers

(B) Presslers increment borer

(D) Ravi multi-meter

Ans. B

120. Diameter measurement are taken in India at meter from ground level

(A) 1.37 m

(B) 1.25 m

(D) 1.50 m

Ans. B

121. The size of the virulent plasmid of Agrobacterium tumefaciens is _________

(A) 40-80 kb

(B) 140-235 kb

(D) > 235 kb

Ans. B

122. Which technique is used to introduce genes into dicots?

(A) Electroporation

(B) Microinjection

(D) Ti plasmid infection

Ans. D

123. Although the Ti plasmid has revolutionized plant genetic engineering, one limitation of its use is that it _________

(A) Cannot infect broadleaf plants

(B) Cannot transmit prokaryotic genes

(D) Does not infect cereal plants such as corn and rice

Ans. D

124. Which of these require cDNA

(A) 454 sequencing

(B) Expressed sequence tags (ESTs)

(D) Two of the above

Ans. B

125. Which of the following amino acid is known as half-cystine residue

(A) Cysteine

(B) Valine

(D) Histidine

Ans. A

126. What is the heaviest of the twenty amino acids?

(A) Phenylalanine

(B) Tyrosine

(D) Histidine

Ans. C

127. Histones have an abundance of which of the following amino acids

(A) Lysine and Arginine

(B) Glycine and Glutamine

(D) Arginine and Glutamine

Ans. A

128. Which of the following amino acids can interact with the DNA or RNA nucleotide bases via hydrogen bonding

(A) Asn and Gln

(B) Lys and Leu

(D) Ile and Val

Ans. A

129. Protein fluorescence arises primarily from which residue

(A) Arginine

(B) Tyrosine

(D) Phenylalanine

Ans. C

130. Which of the following is not an application of genetic engineering in plants

(A) Nitrogen fixation

(B) Resistance to glyphosate

(D) Production of insecticidal proteins in plants

Ans. C

131. In the order of abundance which is the commonest genera of actinomyctes in soil

(A) Streptomyces

(B) Nocardia

(D) Actinoplanes

Ans. A

132. The percentage of ______ in the total microbial population increases with the depth of soil

(A) Bactria

(B) Virus

(D) Actinomycetes

Ans. D

133. _________ are intolerant to acidity

(A) Bacteria

(B) Fungi

(D) None of the above

Ans. A

134. Viruses attack

(A) Bacteria

(B) Fungi

(D) All of the above

Ans. D

135. Bactria responsible for denitrification is/are ______

(A) Pseudomonas

(B) Thiobacillus

(D) All of the above

Ans. B

136. Ni Nitrite oxidizing bacteria are ______

(A) Nitrobacter

(B) Nitrospina

(D) All of the above

Ans. A

137. Ammonia oxidizing bacteria are _____

(A) Nitrosomonas

(B) Nirosococcus

(D) Nitrosovibrio

(E) All of the above

Ans. E

138. Microbial community in area of low PH is dominated by ________

(A) Actinomycetes

(B) Protozoa

(D) Bacteria

Ans. C

139. Humus _________

(A) Consists of partially decomposed organic matter

(B) Dominant food reservoir

(D) All of the above

Ans. D

140. The order of microbial population in soil

(A) Bacteria > Actinomycetes > Fungi > Algae > Protozoa

(B) Actinomycetes > Bacteria > Fungi > Protozoa > Algae

(D) Bacteria > Fungi > Actinomycetes > Algae > Protozoa

Ans. A

141. Diesel engine having specific fuel consumption in kg/bhp/hour

(A) 0.20

(B) 0.29

(D) 0.80

Ans. A

142. Stroke-bore ratio of tractor engine is _______

(A) 1

(B) 1.45

(D) All of the above

Ans. C

143. Carburetor engine having specific fuel consumption

(A) 0.2 kg/bhp/hour

(B) Both A and C

(D) None of the above

Ans. C

144. In cylinder total number of rings on piston, varies between

(A) 3 to 5

(B) 5 to 7

(D) Both A and B

Ans. C

145. In 4-stroke engine the inlet and exhaust valves remains closed for about

(A) 30° from TDC

(B) 30° from BDC

(D) 225° of crank angle

Ans. D

146. The process of removal of burnt gases are called _______

(A) Smoking

(B) Fogging

(D) Scavenging

Ans. D

147. H.S.D. oil having specific gravity

(A) 0.920

(B) 0.820

(D) 0.827

Ans. B

148. Specific gravity of petrol is given by ______

(A) 0.920

(B) 0.820

(D) 0.827

Ans. C

149. Knocking characteristics of fuel is judged by ______

(A) Octane number

(B) Both A and C

(D) None of them

Ans. B

150. Volatility of fuel affects the ______

(A) Ease of start of engine

(B) Fuels calorific value

(D) Both B and C

Ans. A

151. The time required for the runoff water to flow from the most remote point of the watershed area to the outlet

(A) Time of drainage

(B) Time of concentration

(D) Time of saturation

Ans. B

152. The design of diversion ditches for gully control is based on the return period of _________

(A) 5-10 years

(B) 50 years

(D) 100 years

Ans. A

153. The purpose of cutoff walls in drop structure is to __________

(A) Support gully walls

(B) Dissipate kinetic energy of flow

(D) Provide strength against sliding

Ans. B

154. Initiation of soil movement in wind erosion take place under

(A) Suspension

(B) Saltation and surface creep

(D) Both A and B

Ans. A

155. Spattering of small soil particles caused by raindrop impact on the wet soil is called ________

(A) Inter rill erosion

(B) Rill erosion

(D) All are correct

Ans. A

156. In splash erosion the rain drop energy act is the form of __________

(A) Kinetic energy

(B) Chemical energy

(D) None of the above

Ans. A

157. Kinetic energy of rain drop depend on __________

(A) Terminal velocity of raindrop

(B) Drop diameter

(D) All of the above

Ans. A

158. Length of the surveyor’s chain is _________

(A) 33 ft

(B) 66 ft

(D) 150 ft

Ans. B

159. Wind erosion is common in ________

(A) Humid zones

(B) Arid zones

(D) Arid and Humid zones

Ans. C

160. Wind erosion is more in ______

(A) Cohesive soil

(B) Non cohesive soil

(D) All of the above

Ans. B