100 + Interview questions and answers for Agricultural Engineers. This will also help you in cracking Pre PG (Ag) Test, JRF, SRS, ARS, NET, SET, Ph.D, ASRB, IRMA, UPSC, NARBARD, Cooperative Bank, P.O, BEd. MANAGE and allied Agricultural Exams!
1. Based on culturable command area the irrigation projects are classified as
(a) Minor irrigation projects when Irrigated area of 10,000 ha.
(b) Between 2000 to 10,000 ha
(c) Less than < 2,000 ha
(d) All
Ans: c
2. Water horsepower
(a) Discharge in litres per second x total head in m WHP/ 76
(b) Water horsepower/ Pump efficiency
(c) Water horsepower /Pump efficiency
(d) Brake horsepower Input HP/ Motor efficiency
Ans: a
3. Which of the following stage is involved in the development of gully formation stage?
(a) Channel erosion takes place by downward scour of the topsoil
(b) Upstream movement of the gully head and simultaneous enlargement of width and depth take place
(c) Vegetation begins to grow in the channel and further erosion ceases
(d) The gully bed and sides reach a stable slope and sufficient vegetation grows to anchor the soil and to trap soil flowing from upstream
Ans: b
4. Which of the following stage is involved in the development of gully?
(a) Channel erosion takes place by downward scour of the topsoil
(b) Upstream movement of the gully head and simultaneous enlargement of width and depth take place
(c) Vegetation begins to grow in the channel and further erosion ceases
(d) The gully bed and sides reach a stable slope and sufficient vegetation grows to anchor the soil and to trap soil flowing from upstream
Ans: b
5. Which of the following stage is involved in the development of gully healing stage?
(a) Channel erosion takes place by downward scour of the topsoil
(b) Upstream movement of the gully head and simultaneous enlargement of width and depth take place
(c) Vegetation begins to grow in the channel and further erosion ceases
(d) The gully bed and sides reach a stable slope and sufficient vegetation grows to anchor the soil and to trap soil flowing from stream
Ans: c
6. To grow best, sunflowers need
(a) Less sun light
(b) Full sun
(c) Sun only for morning time
(d) None of the above
Ans. (b)
7. In commercial planting, of sunflower, seeds are planted
(a) 30 cm(1.0 ft.) apart and 2.5 cm(1 in)deep
(b) 60 cm (2.0 ft.) apart and 2.5 cm (1 in) deep
(c) 45 cm (1.5 ft.) apart and 2.5 cm (1 in) deep
(d) 90 cm (3 ft.) apart and 2.5 cm (1 in) deep
Ans. (c)
8. Sunflower oil is extracted from the
(a) Seeds
(b) Leaves
(c) Roots
(d) Flower
Ans. (a)
9. Sunflowers can be used in phytoremediation to extract toxic ingredients from soil, which is
(a) Lead
(b) Arsenic
(c) Zinc
(d) Cadmium
Ans. (b)
10. Sugarcane cultivation requires a
(a) Tropical or subtropical climate
(b) Only tropical climate
(c) Only hot dry climate
(d) Only subtropical climate
Ans. (a)
11. Sugarcane cultivation requires a
(a) Minimum of 300 mm (44 in) of annual moisture
(b) Minimum of 400 mm (14 in) of annual moisture
(c) Minimum of 500 mm (12 in) of annual moisture
(d) Minimum of 600 mm (24 in) of annual moisture
Ans. (d)
12. Which of the following is / are the advantage of agroforestry?
a) Better control of cultivated areas of land by substituting for arable plots, the agroforestry plots contributes to diminishing the cultivated area of land.
b) Agroforestry plots have a truly innovative landscaping potential, and would improve the public image of farmers to society thus it will be particularly the case in very sparsely wooded areas, where plots are developed by planting arable land, and in very heavily wooded areas, where plots are developed by thinning the existing forest.
c) Protection of soil and water, in particular in sensitive areas
d) All the above
Ans. (d)
13. Which of the following is correct about Farm Forestry?
a) It is the name given to programmes which promote commercial tree growing by farmers on their own land.
b) This type of forestry is also known as Aesthetic forestry which is defined as the practice of forestry with the object of developing or maintaining a forest of high scenic value
c) It is the practice of forestry for raising fodder grass with scattered fodder trees, fruit trees and fuel wood trees on suitable wastelands, panchayat lands and village commons
d) It is the practice of forestry with the object of raising flowering trees and shrubs mainly to serve as recreation forests for the urban and rural population
Ans. (a)
14. Which of the following is correct about Recreation Forestry?
a) This type of forestry is also known as Aesthetic forestry which is defined as the practice of forestry with the object of developing or maintaining a forest of high scenic value
b) It is the practice of forestry for raising fodder grass with scattered fodder trees, fruit trees and fuel wood trees on suitable wastelands, panchayat lands and village commons
c) It is the practice of forestry with the object of raising flowering trees and shrubs mainly to serve as recreation forests for the urban and rural population
d) It was defined by NCA (1976) as the practice of forestry in all its aspects in and the around the farms or village lands integrated with other farm operations
Ans. (a)
15. Which of the following is correct about Mixed forestry?
a) This type of forestry is also known as Aesthetic forestry which is defined as the practice of forestry with the object of developing or maintaining a forest of high scenic value
b) It is the practice of forestry for raising fodder grass with scattered fodder trees, fruit trees and fuel wood trees on suitable wastelands, panchayat lands and village commons
c) It is the practice of forestry with the object of raising flowering trees and shrubs mainly to serve as recreation forests for the urban and rural population
d) It was defined by NCA (1976) as the practice of forestry in all its aspects in and the around the farms or village lands integrated with other farm operations
Ans. (b)
16. Which of the following is correct about AGRISILVICULTURAL SYSTEMS?
a) Agricultural crops are intercropped with tree crops in the interspace between the trees
b) Under this system agricultural crops can be grown up to two years under protective irrigated condition and under rainfed farming up to four years
c) The crops can be grown profitably up to the above said period beyond which it is uneconomical to grow grain crops
d) All the above
Ans. (d)
17. A fruit fly is heterozygous for sex-linked genes, when mated with normal female fruit fly, the males specific chromosome will enter egg cell in the proportion
a) 3 : 1
b) -7 : 1
c) 1 : 1
d) 2.: 1.
Ans. (c)
18. How many different types of genetically different gametes will be produced by a heterozygous plant having the genotype AABbCc?
a) six
b) nine
c) two
d) four
Ans. (d)
19. Crossing over in diploid organism is responsible for
a) segregation of alleles
b) recombination of linked alleles
c) dominance of genes
d) linkage between genes.
Ans. (b)
20. If Mendel had studied the seven traits using a plant with 12 chromosomes instead of 14, in what way would his interpretation have been different?
a) He would not have discovered the law of independent assortment
b) He would have discovered sex linkage
c) He could have mapped the chromosome
d) He would have discovered blending or incomplete dominance.
Ans. (a)
21. Which of the following is related with Pure line seed?
a) Physical purity
b) Genetic purity
c) Germination purity
d) Contamination
Ans. (c)
22. Breeder seed is_________ pure
a) 99%
b) 100%
c) 75%
d) 10%
Ans. (b)
23. Indian Society of Seed Technology was founded in the year
a) 1976
b) 1971
c) 1930
d) 1975
Ans. (b)
24. There are seed testing laboratories in india
a) 250
b) 103
c) 150
d) 50
Ans. (b)
25. Breeder seed is the progeny of
a) Chemically treated seed
b) Registered seed
c) Nucleus seed
d) Certified seed
Ans. (c)
26. Which of the following type of seed does not require any certification?
a) Nucleus seed
b) Breeder seed
c) Foundation seed
d) Certified seed
Ans. (b)
27. Which of the following stage is involved in the development of gully stabilization stage?
(a) Channel erosion takes place by downward scour of the topsoil
(b) Upstream movement of the gully head and simultaneous enlargement of width and depth take place
(c) Vegetation begins to grow in the channel and further erosion ceases
(d) The gully bed and sides reach a stable slope and sufficient vegetation grows to anchor the soil and to trap soil flowing from upstream
Ans: d
28. Shaft horsepower
(a) Discharge in litres per second × total head in m WHP/ 76
(b) Water horsepower/ Pump efficiency
(c) Water horsepower /Pump efficiency
(d) Brake horsepower Input HP/ Motor efficiency
Ans: b
29. Brake horsepower
(a) Discharge in litres per second × total head in m WHP/ 76
(b) Water horsepower/ Pump efficiency
(c) Water horsepower /Pump efficiency
(d) Brake horsepower Input HP/ Motor efficiency
Ans: c
30. Horse power input to electric motor (Input HP)
(a) Discharge in litres per second × total head in m WHP/ 76
(b) Water horsepower/ Pump efficiency
(c) Water horsepower /Pump efficiency
(d) Brake horsepower Input HP/ Motor efficiency
Ans: d
31. Which of the following residues include crop residues?
(a) Straw
(b) Stalks
(c) Leaves
(d) Roots
(e) All
Ans: e
32. Closely spaced closed contours indicates
(a) Hillock
(b) Depression
(c) Both
(d) Snow capped area
Ans: c
33. Most ideal location of grassed waterways is
(a) Along ridge line
(b) Along natural depression
(c) Along field boundary
(d) Along contour line
Ans: b
34. Grassed water ways are constructed usually
(a) One or two season advance of construction of terraces
(b) Two years after construction of terraces
(c) After couple of heavy storm of rainfall after construction of terraces
(d) Ten year in advance of construction of terraces
Ans: a
35. Continuous heavy rainfall leads to the formation of:
a) Saline soil
b) Sodic soil
c) Acid soil
d) Saline-sodic soil
Ans. (c)
36. Degree of soil salinity is indicated by its:
a) Total soluble salt content
b) Organic matter content
c) Nitrogen content
d) Phosphorous content
Ans. (a)
37. Denitrification is more in:
a) Waterlogged soils
b) Well drained soils
c) Heavy soils
d) Light soils
Ans. (a)
38. Depth of cultivated soils is upto:
a) 5 cm
b) 15 cm
c) 30 cm
d) 45 cm
Ans. (b)
39. Desert soils are found in:
a) Arid and semi-arid region
b) Humid and sub-humid region
c) Arid and humid region
d) All of the above
Ans. (a)
40. Diameter of clay particle is:
a) Less than 0.002mm
b) 0.05-0.5mm
c) 0.5-1.0mm
d) 0.7-0.9mm
Ans. (a)
41. Earth worms present in the soil:
a) Reduces soil fertility
b) Increases soil fertility
c) Harms plants
d) Causes plant diseases
Ans. (b)
42. Cytokinins
a) are plant hormones that promote cell division.
b) are used in combination with auxin to produce plants from undifferentiated callose tissue.
c) also work with oligosaccharins to effect tissue differentiation.
d) All of these are correct
Ans. (d)
43. The cell wall is a membrane that is
a) Permeable
b) Semipermeable
c) Impermeable
d) Differentially permeable
Ans. (a)
44. Swelling of gums on being placed in moistened environment conforms to
a) Diffusion
b) Imbibition
c) Osmosis
d) Plasmolysis
Ans. (b)
45. There will be no change in the concentration if two solutions separated by a semipermeable membrane are
a) Isotonic
b) Hypotonic
c) Hypertonic
d) None of the above
Ans. (a)
46. Swelling of grapes in water conforms to
a) Guttation
b) Endosmosis
c) Plasmolysis
d) Imbibition
Ans. (b)
47. Which of the following situation shows turgid cell?
a) OP=O
b) TP=O
c) DPD=O
d) TP=DPD
Ans. (c)
48. Which of the following situation shows flaccid cell?
a) DPD=OP
b) DPD=TP
c) TP=OP
d) 0P=0
Ans. (a)
49. Which of the following theory was explained by Traube for phenomenon of permeability?
a) Solution theory
b) Mosaic theory
c) Ultrafiltration theory
d) Retention pressure theory
Ans. (d)
50. Which of the following is the source of respiration?
a) RNA
b) Water
c) ADP
d) Stored food
Ans. (d)
51. In aerobic respiration:
a) Glucose is the only substrate
b) Glucose is a preferred substrate
c) Glucose cannot be used directly
d) Any material which burns in air may be used as a substrate
Ans. (b)
52. Respiration is an:
a) Exothermic process
b) Endothermic process
c) Catabolic process
d) Physical process
Ans. (a)
53. Metabolic energy is most extensively used in:
a) Cambium
b) Phloem
c) Xylem
d) Sieve tube
Ans. (a)
54. In respiration, pyruvic acid is:
a) Formed only when oxygen is available
b) One of the products of Krebs cycle
c) Broken down into two carbon fragments and carbon dioxide
d) A result of protein breakdown
Ans. (c)
55. The enzyme of glycolysis is found in:
a) Nucleus
b) Mitochondria
c) Cytoplasm
d) Chloroplast
Ans. (c)
56. Aerobic respiration of glucose produces energy:
a) 700 k cal
b) 630 k cal
c) 673 k cal
d) 693 k cal
Ans. (c)
57. Biological oxidation of Krebs cycle involves:
a) N2
b) NH3
c) O2
d) O3
Ans. (c)
58. The compound which is released in aerobic respiration is:
a) Ethyl alcohol
b) Malic acid
c) Fructose
d) H2O
Ans. (d)
59. Origin of mulberry silkworm is
a) China
b) India
c) Japan
d) Canada
Ans. (a)
60. Origin of Eri Silkworm is
a) India
b) Japan
c) Canada
d) China
Ans. (a)
61. Primary Food Plant of Eri Silkworm is
a) Litsea polyantha
b) Ricinus communis
c) Quercus incana
d) M.bombycis
Ans. (b)
62. Apiculture is derived from the honeybee’s Latin name
a) Apis mellifera
b) Apis dorsata
c) Quercus incana
d) Litsea polyantha
Ans. (a)
63. Bees collect
a) pollen
b) nectar
c) pollen and nectar
d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
64. Pollen is a________ needed for bee brood development
a) Protein source
b) Enzyme source
c) Sugar source
d) None of the above
Ans. (a)
65. Nectar is a________ for providing energy
a) protein source
b) carbohydrate source
c) enzyme source
d) None of the above
Ans. (b)
66. The metering mechanism used for mustard seed is:
a) Cup feed
b) Vertical plate type
c) Fluted roller
d) Stud roller type
Ans. (d)
67. Hand operated sprayers are suitable for:
a) Small holdings
b) Medium holdings
c) Sticky soil
d) Transhy soil
Ans. (a)
68. Power operated sprayers are suitable for:
a) Sticky soil
b) Large holdings
c) Medium holdings
d) Transhy soil
Ans. (b)
69. Which of the following type of work can be done by Airplane sprayers?
a) Small scale work
b) Medium scale work
c) Large scale work
d) All are correct
Ans. (c)
70. Which of the following type of pump is used in Bucket type sprayers?
a) Single and double acting pump
b) Centrifugal pump
c) Plunger type pump
d) All are correct
Ans. (a)
71. Which of the following is a heteroglycan?
a) Dextrins
b) Agar
c) Inulin
d) Chitin
Ans. (b)
72. The glycosaminoglycan which does not contain uronic acid is
a) Dermatan phosphate
b) Chondroitin sulphate
c) Keratan sulphate
d) Heparan phosphate
Ans. (c)
73. The glycosaminoglycan which does not contain uronic acid is
a) Hyaluronic acid
b) Heparin
c) Chondroitin sulphate
d) Dermatan sulphate
Ans. (b)
74. Keratan sulphate is found in abundance in
a) Heart muscle
b) Stomach
c) Lungs
d) Cornea
Ans. (d)
75. Repeating units of hyaluronic acid are
a) N-acetyl glucosamine and D-glucuronic acid
b) N-acetyl galactosamine and D-glucuronic acid
c) N-acetyl glucosamine and galactose
d) N-acetyl galactosamine and L- iduronic acid
Ans. (a)
76. The approximate number of branches in amylopectin is
a) 50
b) 60
c) 40
d) 80
Ans. (d)
77. In amylopectin the intervals of glucose units of each branch is
a) 10-20
b) 15-20
c) 60-70
d) 40-50
Ans. (d)
78. Which of the following can increase Vitamin D absorption?
a) Acid pH of intestine
b) Alkaline pH of intestine
c) Impaired fat absorption
d) None of the above
Ans. (a)
79. The most potent Vitamin D metabolite is
a) 25 – Hydroxycholecalciferol
b) 1,25 – Dihydroxycholecalciferol
c) 24, 25 – Dihydroxycholecalciferol
d) 7 – Dehydrocholesterol
Ans. (b)
80. The normal serum concentration of 25- hydroxycholecalciferol in ng/ml is
a) 30-40
b) 80-90
c) 100- 150
d) 8-55
Ans. (d)
81. The normal serum concentration of 1, 25- dihydroxycholecalciferol in pg/ml is
a) 26-65
b) 50-60
c) 15-25
d) 80-100
Ans. (a)
82. The normal serum concentration of 24, 25- dihydroxycholecalciferol in ng/ml is
a) 1-2
b) 25-50
c) 1-5
d) 35-40
Ans. (c)
83. Which of the following is poor source of Vitamin D?
a) Egg
b) Butter
c) Milk
d) Liver
Ans. (c)
84. Richest source of Vitamin D is
a) Fish liver oils
b) Margarine
c) Coconut oil
d) Mustard oil
Ans. (a)
85. Deficiency of vitamin D causes
a) Rickets and osteomalacia
b) Tuberculosis of bone
c) Hypthyroidism
d) Skin cancer
Ans. (a)
86. One international unit (I.U) of vitamin D is defined as the biological activity of
a) 0.025 μg of cholecalciferol
b) 0.050 μg of 7-dehydrocholecalciferol
c) 0.025 μg of ergosterol
d) 0.010 μg of ergocalciferol
Ans. (a)
87. The Beta -ring of 7-dehydrocholesterol is cleaved to form cholecalciferol by
a) Infrared light
b) Dim light
c) Ultraviolet radiation with sunlight
d) Light of the tube lights
Ans. (c)
88. Calcitriol synthesis involves
a) Liver
b) Kidney
c) Both liver and kidney
d) Lungs
Ans. (c)
89. Diversion drains are generally constructed along the
(a) Slope
(b) Contour
(c) Valley line
(d) Grassed waterways
Ans:b
90. Side slope of grassed water ways are normally kept………… H: V)
(a) 1:1
(b) 2:1
(c) 10:1
(d) 50:1
Ans: c
91. Permissible velocity of flow in channel or grassed water ways with sparse cover of vegetation is
(a) 9m/s
(b) 5 m/s
(c) 3 m/s
(d) 0.9 m/s
Ans: d
92. Manning’s coefficient for freshly constructed channel is in die range of
(a) 1-2
(b) 03-1
(c) 0.03-0.04
(d) <0.001
Ans: c
93. Diversion drains are designed for …. year return period of rainfall
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 10
(d) 50
Ans: c
94. Boundary of land capability classification is plotted with _____ colour on map
(a) Dark green
(b) Red
(c) Blue
(d) Black
Ans: d
95. Class IVe in alluvial soil may have land slope in die range of
(a) 0-15%
(b) 20-50%
(c) 25-33%
(d) 15-50%
Ans: a
96. Mapping unit in land capability classification is written as
(a) (Texture – depth)/(Slope- erosion)
(b) (Texture – Slope)/(depth – erosion)
(c) (Texture – Slope – depth)/ (erosion)
(d) (Slope- erosion)/(texture – depth)
Ans: a
97. Find the land capability subclass of land having silt loam soils of 50 cm depth and slope less than 1% with sign of erosion,
(a) IIe
(b) IIs
(c) IVs
(d) IVe
Ans: b
98. The subclass of land with sandy clay loam soil of more than 1 meter depth and slope of 30 % with rills and gullies are visible
(a) IIe
(b) IIs
(c) IVs
(d) VIe
Ans: d
99. A 2m deep gully with bed width 15 m and side slope 20% is classified as
(a) Very small gully (G1)
(b) Small gully (G2)
(c) Medium gully (G3)
(d) Very deep gully (G4)
Ans: a
100. If gully depth is 7 m, bed width 27 m, and side slope 14%, it is a
(a) Very small gully (G1)
(b) Small gully (G2)
(c) Medium gully (G3)
(d) Very deep gully (G4)
Ans: c
101. A gully width depth 2.5 m, bed width 23 m side slope 12% will be classified as
(a) Very small gully (G1)
(b) Small gully (G2)
(c) Medium gully (G3)
(d) Very deep gully (G4)
Ans: b
102. Table land and wide humps in between gully having slope 1-3% at a distance of 6 to 60 m from gully rim is classified as
(a) Class I
(b) Class II
(c) Class III
(d) Class IV
Ans: c
103. Time of concentration (Tc) is defined as time taken by runoff to reach from
(a) Remotest point to outlet
(b) Highest point to outlet
(c) Middle of watershed to outlet
(d) None of the above
Ans: a
104. Runoff is defined as the portion of rainfall that
(a) Stored in micro depression
(b) Makes the way towards outlet
(c) Is held by soil profile,
(d) That is evaporated during rainfall event
Ans: b
105. Time of concentration refers to the
(a) Storm duration that correspond with maximum rate of runoff
(b) Longest time taken for water to travel by surface flow from any point in the catchment.
(c) Both
(d) None
Ans: c
106. nonrandom sampling?
(a) Snowball sampling
(b) Convenience sampling
(c) Quota sampling
(d) Purposive sampling
(e) They are all forms of nonrandom sampling
Ans: a
107. Which of the following techniques yields a simple random sample?
(a) Choosing volunteers from an introductory class to participate
(b) Listing the individuals by groups and choosing a proportion from each group at random.
(c) Numbering all the elements of a sampling frame and then using a random number table to pick cases from the table.
(d) Randomly selecting schools, and then sampling everyone within the school.
(e) All the above cases
Ans: c
108. Conduct a test to determine whether or not the population proportion of experts in favor of proposal A is greater than 50%. In a random sample of 200 experts, 140 said that they were in favor of this proposal. Compute the test statistic.
(a) z= 80.00
(b) z= 160.00
(c) z= 11.31
(d) z=5.66
(e) None of the above
Ans: d
109. In a group of six male students and four female students, a committee of four is to be chosen. What is the probability that this committee consists of exactly two male and two female students?
(a) 1/10
(b) 5/7
(c) 1/14
(d) 3/7
(e) None of the above
Ans: d
110. In research paper, the probability that no typing errors will occur on a page is 0.05. The probability that one error will, occur is 0.1; the probability of 2 errors is 0.1; 3 errors is 0.2; 4 errors is 0.2; 5 errors is 0.3; and the probability of 6 errors is 0.05. The average number of errors per page is:
(a) 15
(b) 21
(c) 3.5
(d) 0.45
(e) None of the above
Ans: c
111. In plant breeding experiments polythene bags are used for pollination. A box has 20 polythene bags, three of which are known to be defective. What is the probability that the first two polythene bags taken out of the box are both defective?
(a) 0.0158
(b) 0.15
(c) 0.0237
(d) 0.0225
(e) None of the above
Ans: a
112. The probability of event A is 0.3; and of event B is 0.4. What is the probability that neither of the events occur, assuming that these two events are independent?
(a) 0.42
(b) 0.12
(c) 0.88
(d) 0.44
(e) 0.70
Ans: a
113. The probability of event A is 0.3; and of event B is 0.4. If event A and B are not independent, and the probability of both events occurring is 0.11, what is the probability that neither events occur?
(a) 0.61
(b) 0.41
(c) 0.12
(d) 0.91
(e) 0.03
Ans: b
114. A box has five polythene bags in it, out of which one is defective. If three polythene bags are taken out at random, what is the probability that the defective polythene bag is one of them?
(a) 1/5
(b) 2/5
(c) 3/5
(d) 4/5
(e) None of the above
Ans: c
115. Suppose that two events A and B are mutually exclusive. Given that the probability of A is 0.4 and the probability of B is 0.2. The probability that either A or B or both will occur is:
(a) 0.08
(b) 0.52
(c) 0.60
(d) 0.00
(e) None of the above
Ans: c