General Knowledge (G.K.) Questions on Indian Agriculture

General Knowledge questions on Indian agriculture highly useful for cracking Pre PG (Ag) Test, JRF, SRS, ARS, NET, SET, Ph.D, ASRB, IRMA, UPSC, NARBARD, Cooperative Bank, P.O, BEd. MANAGE and allied Agricultural Exam

1. ________ are the fixed points of reference established between the GTS bench marks by Government agencies such as PWD.

(a) GT.S (Great Trigonometrical Survey) bench mark

(b) Permanent bench mark

(d) Temporary bench marks

Ans: b

2. _________ are the reference points whose elevations are arbitrarily assumed.

(a) GT.S (Great Trigonometrical Survey) bench mark

(b) Permanent bench mark

(d) Temporary bench marks

Ans: c

3. _________ are the reference points established at the end of day s work or when there is a break in the work.

(a) GT.S (Great Trigonometrical Survey) bench mark

(b) Permanent bench mark

(d) Temporary bench marks

Ans: d

4. Based on culturable command area the irrigation projects are classified as

(a) Major irrigation projects when Irrigated area of > 10,000 ha.

(b) Between 2000 to 10,000 ha

(d) All

Ans: a

5. Based on culturable command area the irrigation projects are classified as

(a) Medium irrigation projects when Irrigated area of 10,000 ha.

(b) Between 2000 to 10,000 ha

(d) All

Ans: b

6. For conservation point of view which type of bench terrace is recommended in high rainfall area

(a) Leveled

(b) Inward sloping

(d) No terracing

Ans: b

7. Leveled terraces is practiced for

(a) Potato cultivation

(b) Paddy cultivation

(d) For landslide prone area

Ans: b

8. Terrace formed in stages by means of mechanical or vegetative barrier is called

(a) Puerto Rican terraces

(b) American terraces

(d) Harappa terraces

Ans: a

9. In case of no limitation of soil depth, horizontal interval of bench terraces is determined by

(a) Slope of the land

(b) Amount of rainfall

(d) Amount of water to be harvested

Ans: a

10. Bunding as conservation measure works by

(a) Reducing degree of slope

(b) Reducing intensity of rainfall

(d) None of the above

Ans: c

11. Terracing as conservation measures work by

(a) Reducing degree of slope

(b) Reducing slope length

(d) Reducing intensity of rainfall

Ans: c

12. Inward slope is given in terrace

(a) To store extra runoff for irrigation

(b) To grow water loving crop near the base of terrace

(d) For aquaculture

Ans: c

13. V = R^2/3 S^1/2 is a statement of

(a) Swaminathan’s formula

(b) Dhruvanarayana’s Formula

(d) Reynold’s formula

Ans: c

14. Shoulder bunds are provided in terrace for the purpose of

(a) For impounding water on terrace

(b) For growing crop on shoulder bunds

(d) None of the above

Ans: c

15. Land with slope in range of 1 to 3% belongs to class– in land capability classification

(a) Class II

(b) Class IV

(d) Class III

Ans: a

16. Isohyets are line joining the same

(a) Elevation

(b) Rainfall

(d) Runoff

Ans: b

17. Higher drainage density is likely to generate

(a) More runoff

(b) Less runoff

(d) Less amount of channel flow

Ans: a

18. Class I land in land capability classification is suitable for

(a) Intensive agriculture

(b) Grazing

(d) All purpose

Ans: d

19. Limitation of Soil depth is represented in subclass as

(a) ‘s’ as subscript to the class

(b) ‘s’ as superscript to the class

(d) ‘r’ as superscript to the class

Ans: a

20. The main limitation of land capability class IIIe is

(a) Lower soil depth

(b) Higher slope and/ erosion

(d) All of the above

Ans: b

21. Find odd among following land capability classes

(a) II_s

(b) III_c

(d) V_s

Ans: c

22. Class I has land slope in range of

(a) 0-1%

(b) 0-3%

(d) 2-5%

Ans: a

23. The graph of a cumulative frequency distribution is called?

(a) Ogive

(b) Pie chart

(d) Histogram

(e) Bar chart

Ans: a

24. Several friends go to a casino and do some gambling. The following are the profits each of these friends make: Rs. 120, -230,670, -1090,250, -430, and -60. What is the average profit of this group?

(a) Rs.100

(b) -Rs.100

(d) Rs.397

(e) -Rs.110

Ans: e

25. Find the variance of the following set of values: 2,4,8,6, and 10.

(a) 2.88

(b) 4.4

(d) 10.0

(e) 10.5

Ans: d

26. A measure of the degree of asymmetry of a frequency distribution is called?

(a) Kurtosis

(b) Skewness

(d) Standard deviation

(e) Ogive

Ans: b

27. When the expected value of an estimator is equal to the parameter, that estimator is said to be:

(a) Unbiased

(b) Biased

(d) Consistent

(e) Sufficient

Ans: a

28. A graphical summary of data based on a five number summary is known as:

(a) Histogram

(b) Bar Diagram

(d) Box plot

(e) Ogive & Box plot

Ans: d

29. Which of the following would generally require the largest sample size?

(a) Cluster sampling

(b) Simple random sampling

(d) Proportional stratified sampling

(e) Judgment sampling

Ans: a

30. How often does the Census Bureau take a complete population count?

(a) Every year

(b) Every five years

(d) Twice a year

(e) Twice in every ten years

Ans: c

31. Humid region based on Heat Index and moisture supply covered the state of

(a) Kerala

(b) Coastal Madras

(d) All the above

Ans. (d)

32. Sub-humid region based on Heat Index and moisture supply covered the state of

(a) Western & Central M.P.

(b) Vidarbha

(d) All the above

Ans. (d)

33. State Agricultural universities were advised to divide each zone/state into sub-zones, under the National Agricultural Research Project (NARP). Accordingly a ___________subzone map, based primarily on rainfall, existing cropping pattern and administrative units was prepared.

(a) 127

(b) 130

(d) 156

Ans. (a)

34. ICAR has divided the whole country into _________ agro-climatic regions

(a) 130

(b) 134

(d) 127

Ans. (d)

35. In southern India, humid zone receive more than ____________ inches of annual rainfall

(a) 100

(b) 80

(d) 45

Ans. (b)

36. Agro-climate regional planning in India was initiated in 1988 by the

(a) Government of India

(b) Planning Commission

(d) None of the above

Ans. (b)

37. Semi-arid zone is the dry farming region of the country and roughly covers an area of million acres

(a) 130

(b) 55

(d) 33

Ans. (c)

38. The important crops grown in Semi-arid zone are

(a) Millets, ragi, cotton, groundnut, castor and linseed

(b) Castor and linseed

(d) None of the above

Ans. (a)

39. Semi-arid region based on Heat Index and moisture supply covered the states of

(a) Northern & Eastern Rajasthan, Gujarat, Marathwada, Mysore, Rayalaseema, Punjab, Delhi, Western U.P.

(b) Central U.P., Western & Central M.P, Vidarbha, Eastern U.P, Bihar, Sub- mountain tracts of U.P., H.P., West Bengal and Nilgiri

(d) None of the above

Ans. (a)

40. Currently horticulture contributes ____________of agricultural GDP

(a) 28 percent

(b) 25 percent

(d) 42 percent

Ans. (a)

41. India ranks_________ worldwide in farm output

(a) First

(b) Second

(d) Fourth

Ans. (b)

42. The rapeseed-mustard group includes

(a) Brown sarson

(b) Raya

(d) All the above

Ans. (d)

43. The mustard crop can be raised well under

(a) Irrigated conditions

(b) Rainfed conditions

c) Hot dry condition

d) Both a and b are correct

Ans. (d)

44. The pigeon pea, also known as

(a) Toor dal or arhar dal (India)

(b) Congo pea or gungo pea (in Jamaica)

(d) All the above are correct

Ans. (d)

45. The cultivation of the pigeon pea goes back at least

(a) 3000 years

(b) 5000 years

(d) 9000 years

Ans. (a)

46. Loose smut of wheat is / are:

a) Internally seed borne

b) Externally seed borne

c) Both (a) & (b)

d) Not clearly defined

Ans. (a)

47. Today pigeon peas are widely cultivated in _________ of both the Old and the New World

(a) All tropical regions

(b) Semi-tropical regions

(d) Hot climatic regions

Ans. (c)

48. Organic and conventional agriculture belonged to two different paradigms, the fundamental difference between the two competing agricultural paradigms is that organic agriculture has characteristic of

a) Independence

b) Harmony with nature

c) Decentralization

d) All the above

Ans. (d)

49. Which of the following is main agricultural crop for organic farming cultivation?

a) Cotton

b) Sugarcane

c) Both a and b

d) None of the above

Ans. (c)

50. Which of the following is main horticulture crop for organic farming cultivation?

a) Fruits

b) Potato

c) Carrot

d) None of the above

Ans. (d)

51. Which of the following is main horticulture crop for organic farming cultivation?

a) Pepper

b) Cardamom

c) Ginger

d) None of the above

Ans. (d)

52. Which of the following is main horticulture crop under flower category for organic farming cultivation?

a) Carnation

b) Gerbera

c) Both a and b

d) None of the above

Ans. (c)

53. Which of the following is correct about agroforestry?

a) Agroforestry is an activity that combines production on the same plot of land, from annual agricultural activities (such as crops and pasture) and from delayed long-term production by trees (for example timber and services)

b) Agroforestry provides a different land use option, compared with traditional arable and forestry systems

c) It is a practice that respects the environment and has an obvious landscape benefit

d) All the above

Ans. (d)

54. Which of the following is / are the advantage of agroforestry?

a) Diversification of the activities of arable farmers, with the building-up of an inheritance of valuable trees, without disrupting the revenue from those plots which have been planted.

b) Protection of intercrops and animals by the trees, which have a windbreak effect, providing shelter from the sun, from the rain, from the wind, holding the soil in place, and stimulating soil microfauna and microflora

c) Recovery of some of the leached or drained nutrients by the deep roots of the trees; enrichment of the soil organic matter by tree litter and by the dead roots of the trees.

d) All the above

Ans. (d)

55. When two genetic loci produce identical phenotypes in cis and trans position, they are considered to be

a) multiple alleles

b) the parts of same gene

c) pseudoalleles

d) different genes.

Ans. (c)

56. When two dominant independently assorting genes react with each other, they are called

a) Collaborative genes

b) Complementary genes

c) Duplicate genes

d) Supplementary genes.

Ans. (b)

57. The polygenic genes show

a) Different karyotypes

b) Different genotypes

c) Different phenotypes

d) None of these.

Ans. (c)

58. When a single gene influences more than one trait it is called

a) Pseudodominance

b) Pleiotrophy

c) Epistasis

d) None of these.

Ans. (b)

59. In hybridization, Tt x tt gives rise to the progeny of ratio

a) 2 : 1

b) 1 : 2 : 1

c) 1 : 1

d) 1 : 2.

Ans. (c)

60. A gene pair hides the effect of another gene. The phenomenon is called

a) Dominance

b) Segregation

c) Epistasis

d) Mutation.

Ans. (c)

61. According to Mendelism which character shows dominance?

a) Terminal position of flower

b) Green colour in seed coat

c) Wrinkled seeds

d) Green pod colour.

Ans. (d)

62. Due to the cross between TTRr x ttrr the resultant progenies show ________ percent of tall, red flowered plants

a) 50%

b) 75%

c) 25%

d) 100%.

Ans. (a)

63. An epipedon which has dark colour low in base saturation is called:

a) Umbric epipedon

b) Histic epipedon

c) Ochric epipedon

d) Anthropic epipedon

Ans. (a)

64. Aridisols soils are found in the region of:

a) Humid

b) Arid

c) Submerged

d) None of these

Ans. (b)

65. Arrangement of soil particles is referred to as:

a) Soil structure

b) Soil texture

c) Soil organization

d) None of the above

Ans. (a)

66. Available phosphorous of less than 10 kg/ha of soil is considered as:

a) Low

b) Medium

c) High

d) Trace

Ans. (a)

67. Available phosphorous of more than 25 kg/ ha of soil is considered as:

a) Low

b) Medium

c) High

d) Trace

Ans. (c)

68. Available potassium of more than 280 kg/ha of soil is considered as:

a) Low

b) Medium

c) High

d) Trace

Ans. (c)

69. Black and dark coloured soils absorb _______ heat from sunlight than light coloured soils.

a) Less

b) More

c) Negligible

d) Very high

Ans. (b)

70. Black soil is the________ largest group of Indian soils.

a) First

b) Third

c) Second

d) None of these

Ans. (c)

71. Which plant hormone is called the stress hormone because it produces dormancy in seeds and buds?

a) Abscisic acid

b) Auxin

c) Cytokinin

d) Ethylene

Ans. (a)

72. Which plant hormone is associated with the closure of the stomatas in a plant under water stress?

a) Abscisic acid

b) Auxin

c) Cytokinin

d) Ethylene

Ans. (a)

73. Which statement is NOT correct about a circadian rhythm?

a) These rhythms tend to persist even in the absence of daily light cues.

b) An example is the opening of stomata in the morning and their closing at night.

c) If plants are maintained in total darkness or total light, their circadian rhythm acts on a faster time scale.

d) The primary usefulness of circadian rhythms seems to be to measure day- length changes so plants respond appropriately to seasonal environmental changes.

Ans. (c)

74. Which is NOT a physiological change related to photoperiodism?

a) Seed germination

b) Root branching

c) Breaking bud dormancy

d) None of these

Ans. (b)

75. The prayer plant, Maranta leuconeura, folds up its leaves each night in accordance with a circadian rhythm. If we were to ship this plant halfway around the world to a location where it is daytime there when it is night here, the plant will

a) slowly adjust to synchronize with the new day-night cycle.

b) immediately switch to a new cycle and begin to open leaves in day and close them at night.

c) detect the change but remain on its original cycle and therefore still fold leaves in day and open them at night.

d) not detect the change and therefore remain on its original cycle.

Ans. (a)

76. Muga silk is produced by

a) Anthreaea mylitta

b) Anthreaea pamyi

c) Anthreaea roylei

d) Anthreaea assamensis

Ans. (d)

77. Mulberry silkworm is

a) Bombyx mori

b) Anthreaea mylitta

c) Anthreaea assamensis

d) Attacus atlas

Ans. (a)

78. The larger poison claws of the centipede are

a) Mandibles

b) Maxillepedes

c) Maxillae

d) Telson

Ans. (b)

79. Honey is a nector

a) Obtained from flowers and stored in beehive

b) And pollen obtained from flowers and stored in beehive

c) Of flowers diluted by honey bee by mixing with saliva

d) None of the above

Ans. (b)

80. Scientific and commercial method of bee keeping for production of honey and wax is called

a) Apiculture

b) Sericulture

c) Silviculture

d) Pisciculture

Ans. (a)

81. The mouth part of honey bee used to mould wax and adhere pollen is

a) Lingula

b) Labium

c) Labellum

d) Labrum

Ans. (d)

82. Which of the following is also called the lesser grain borer?

a) Tragoderma granarium

b) Tribolim castaneum

c) Calandra oryza

d) Rhizopetha dominica

Ans. (d)

83. Sitophilus oryzae is a common stored grain pest of

a) Sugar

b) Wheat

c) Sugar cane

d) Pulses

Ans. (b)

84. The pH of an amino acid depends on

a) Optical rotation

b) Dissociation constant

c) Diffusion constant

d) Chain length

Ans. (b)

85. When amino acids are treated with neutral formaldehyde, the pH of the mixture

a) Does not change at all

b) Increases

c) Decreases

d) First increases then decreases

Ans. (c)

86. Which among the following has an imidazole group?

a) Histidine

b) Lysine

c) Proline

d) Globulin

Ans. (a)

87. The amino acid exist as Zwitter ions when they are in

a) basic solution

b) acidic solution

c) alkaline solution

d) neutral solution

Ans. (d)

88. Collagen is very rich in

a) Glycine

b) Serine

c) Aspartic acid

d) Globulin

Ans. (a)

89. All amino acids are optically active except

a) Glycine

b) Lysine

c) Proline

d) Tryptophan

Ans. (a)

90. Out of 200 different amino acids form in nature the number of amino acids present in protein:

a) 20

b) 35

c) 50

d) 45

Ans. (a)

91. Enzyme catalyzed hydrolysis of proteins produces amino acids of the form:

a) DL

b) L

c) D

d) All of these

Ans. (b)

92. Which of the following are present in folic acid?

a) Base pteridine, p-amino benzoic acid and asparate

b) Base purine, p-amino benzoic acid and glutamate

c) Base pteridine, p-amino benzoic acid and glutamate

d) Base purine, p-hydroxy benzoic acid and asparate

Ans. (c)

93. Folate as a coenzyme is involved in the transfer and utilization of

a) Amide group

b) Hydroxyl group

c) Single carbon moiety

d) Carbide group

Ans. (c)

94. Folic acid deficiency can be diagnosed by increased urinary excretion of

a) Methylmalonate

b) Figlu

c) Sucinic dehydrogenase

d) Thiamine

Ans. (b)

95. Sulpha drugs interfere with bacterial synthesis of

a) Vitamin A

b) Vitamin D

c) Tetrahydrofolate

d) Ascorbic acid

Ans. (c)

96. Folate deficiency causes

a) Scurvy

b) Hemolytic anemia

c) Pernicious anemia

d) Megaloblastic anemia

Ans. (d)

97. Thiamine is heat stable in

a) Acidic medium

b) Alkaline medium

c) Vacuum

d) Oil medium

Ans. (a)

98. Thiamine deficiency causes

a) Mental depression

b) Fatigue

c) Beriberi

d) All of these

Ans. (d)

99. Thiamine diphosphate is required for oxidative decarboxylation of

a) α – Keto acids

b) α – Amino acids

c) β- Amino acids

d) β – Keto acids

Ans. (a)

100. Loss of thiamine can be decreased by using

a) Unpolished rice

b) Parboiled rice

c) Whole wheat flour

d) All of these

Ans. (d)