190 + General Knowledge Questions and Answers on Agriculture

Compilation of the most probable general knowledge questions and answers on agriculture for various examination! This will help you to learn about the most frequently asked objective type questions on agriculture especially compiled for ICAR (JRF/SRF), NET, ARS, IARI Ph.D and other competitive exams.

1. Concept of “crystallized labour’ given by ______

(A) Marshall

(B) Keynes

(D) Karl Marx

Ans. D

2. Sensitivity analysis is used in ______

(A) Preparation of project

(B) Appraisals

(D) Forecasting/evaluation

Ans. D

3. Project planning and budgeting are used to know _______

(A) Commercial aspect

(B) Financial aspects

(D) Technical aspects of project

Ans. B

4. Capital formation in agriculture over the years

(A) Decreasing

(B) Increasing

(D) Constant

Ans. A

5. GNP deflator is _________

(A) Nominal GNP/Nominal GDP

(B) Nominal GNP/Real GNP

(D) Real GNP/Nominal GDP

Ans. B

6. Keynes is related to which inflation theory

(A) Cost push

(B) Demand pull

(D) None of the above

Ans. B

7. In case of amortized even repayment plan, the interest rate

(A) Increases

(B) Declines

(D) Not related

Ans. B

8. Nationalization of bank was carried out on _______

(A) 19^th June 1969

(B) 19^th July 1969

(B) 2^nd October 1969

Ans. B

9. Single window system was recommended by _______

(A) Narashimhan

(B) Dr. Gadgil

(D) Mohan Prakash

Ans. C

10. “The law of diminishing return” is not concerned with profits because

(A) It assumes profits are there in the business

(B) It deals with all the inputs at a time

(D) TPP is declining in third zone of production function

Ans. C

11. Cost calculated per hectare is called _______

(A) Cost of production

(B) Cost of cultivation

(D) Opportunity cost

Ans. B

12. Which of the following is not a type of farming

(A) Dry Farming

(B) Ranching

(D) Mixed farming

Ans. C

13. Which of the following is an explicit cost

(A) Fertilizer

(B) Farm Manager’s labour

(D) Retained seed

Ans. A

14. The concept of opportunity cost was introduced by _______

(A) J.S. Mill

(B) J.M. Keynes

(D) Ricardo

Ans. A

15. There is scope for reorganization of resources in of production function

(A) Zone I

(B) Zone II

(D) Zone I and III

Ans. D

16. In a production function, when MPP increases, TPP

(A) Increases at increasing rate

(B) Increases at decreasing rate

(D) Decreases at constant rate

Ans. A

17. Production possibility curve is concave to the origin when products substitute at _________

(A) Constant rate

(B) Increasing rate

(D) None of the above

Ans. B

18. Return to scale is production function

(A) Long run

(B) Short run

(D) Discrete

Ans. A

19. The speculative demand for money is otherwise called as ________

(A) Business motive

(B) Transaction motive

(D) Precautionary motive

Ans. C

20. The ratio of consumption expenditure to income is called ________

(A) Basic consumption

(B) Expected consumption

(D) Marginal propensity to consume

Ans. C

21. What does a coefficient of correlation of 0.70 means?

(A) Almost no correlation because 0.70 is close to 1.0

(B) 70% of the variation in one variable is explained by other variable

(D) Coefficient of non-determination is 0.30

Ans. C

22. Which of the following statements is not correct regarding the coefficient of correlation

(A) It can range from -1 to 1

(B) Its square is the Coefficient of determination

(D) It is a measure of the association between two variables

Ans. C

23. The degree of correlation coefficient may be ascertained by ________

(A) Scatter diagram

(B) Histogram

(D) Any one of the above

Ans. A

24. If all the points in a scatter diagram lies on a straight line, the value of the correlation coefficient is?

(A) Always +1

(B) Always -1

(D) Either +1 or -1

Ans. D

25. If two variables are uncorrelated the lines of regression

(A) Becomes parallel

(B) Become perpendicular to each other

(D) Angle between them is 60 degree

Ans. B

26. The lines of regression intersect each other at coordinates

(A) (0, 0)

(B) (0, y)

(D) (x̅, y̅)

Ans. D

27. Sum of square for ‘Lake of fit’ and ‘Pure error’ are the breakup of ______

(A) Regression SS

(B) Error SS

(D) None of the above

Ans. B

28. The correlation coefficient of y on x is 0.25, then the regression coefficient of x on y is _____

(A) Equal to 4

(B) Less than 4

(D) Lies between 0 to 4

Ans. A

29. The correlation coefficient r is the _____ of two regression coefficient b_yx and b_xy?

(A) Arithmetic mean

(B) Harmonic mean

(D) Weighted arithmetic mean

Ans. C

30. If r is the correlation coefficient then arithmetic mean of two regression coefficient b_yx and b_xy (not equal) is always?

(A) Equal to r

(B) Less than r

(D) None of the above

Ans. C

31. Both regression coefficients have?

(A) Different signs

(B) Different signs as compared to correlation coefficient

(D) Have same meaning as square-root of correlation coefficient

Ans. C

32. The farther the two regression lines cut each other the degree of correlation will be ________

(A) Greater

(B) Lesser

(D) Zero

Ans. B

33. The variable plotted on the horizontal or X-axis in a scatter diagram is called the __________

(A) Scatter variable

(B) Independent variable

(D) Correlation variable

Ans. B

34. In general, for a better fit regression equation the value of R² is nearer to ________

(A) 0

(B) +1

(D) ∞

Ans. B

35. If the two random variables x and y are connected by the relationship 2x + y = 3 then r_xy is equals to ________

(A) 1

(B) -1

(D) 2/3

Ans. B

36. Suppose the slope of a regression line is 5 and r = 0.60. If response (y) data point is multiplied by 0.06, what will the new slope and r be?

(A) 5 and 0.60, respectively

(B) 0.3 and 0.60, respectively

(D) None of the above

Ans. B

37. A regression equation is used to ________

(A) Measure the association between two variables

(B) Estimate the value of the dependent variable based on the independent variable

(D) Estimate the coefficient of the determination

Ans. B

38. The coefficient of determination is the _________

(A) Ratio of the explained variation to the total deviation

(B) Ratio of the unexplained deviation to the explained deviation

(D) Ratio of the explained variation to the total variation

Ans. D

39. When a regression analysis is conducted, the controllable variable that can be fixed by the person collecting the data is the _________

(A) Dependent variable

(B) Independent variable

(D) Intercept of the regression line

Ans. B

40. A linear regression between Y and X produced the following equation for the least squares line Y = 2.15 – 3.5X. Which of the following statements concerning this relationship is true?

(A) For every one-unit increase in Y, X increases 3.2 units

(B) For every one-unit increase in X, Y decreases 3.2 units

(D) For every one-unit increase in Y, X increases 3.2 units

Ans. C

41. Which of the following in a pest of paddy belonging to Family Cicadellidae:

(A) Tryporyza incertulus

(B) Nephotettix apicalis

(D) Leptocorisa acuta

Ans. B

42. Which of the following Orders comprises phytophagous insects:

(A) Odonata

(B) Phasmida

(D) Mallophaga

Ans. B

43. Which of the following is a neuropteran predator:

(A) Menodrilus

(B) Brumus

(D) Cryptolacmus

Ans. C

44. The main host tree of eri silk worm is_______

(A) Castor

(B) Mulberry

(D) Ber

Ans. A

45. The main characteristic feature of an insect is _____

(A) Presence of wings

(B) Three body regions

(D) One pair of antennae

Ans. C

46. The insects are able to maintain the balance while walking due to _____

(A) Hexapod

(B) Exoskeleton

(D) Wings

Ans. A

47. The incidence of ‘White grubs’ is heavy in _____

(A) Heavily water-logged fields

(B) Dry fields of heavy clay soil

(D) Desert land having little vegetation

Ans. A

48. The exchange of gases in respiration in insects takes place through _______

(A) Gills

(B) Spiracles

(D) Cuticle

Ans. B

49. Who is known as father of “Insect Physiology”?

(A) R.F. Chapman

(B) Snodgrass

(D) R.L. Stevenson

Ans. C

50. Who coined the term ‘Pest Management’:

(A) Geier

(B) Dry Perry Adkissan

(D) Dr. Ray F. Smith

Ans. A

51. The female mosquitoes possess:

(A) Filiform antennae

(B) Plumose antennae

(D) Serrate antennae

Ans. B

52. Chitty’s theory of population dynamics is based on _____

(A) Abiotic factors

(B) Both abiotic and biotic factors

(D) Genetic factors

Ans. D

53. The number of segments which make the insect’s head is _________

(A) 2

(B) 4

(D) 8

Ans. C

54. The potential produced in the dendrite of the sense organ by depolarization is called _________

(A) Resting potential

(B) Generator potential

(D) Action potential

Ans. C

55. The queen termite produces following number of eggs per second:

(A) 40

(B) 60

(D) 70

Ans. B

56. The percentage of zinc phosphide in poison bait for rat is _________

(A) 1%

(B) 3%

(D) 4%

Ans. C

57. The sperms after insemination are stored in __________

(A) Vagina

(B) Accessory glands

(D) Seminal vesicle

Ans. C

58. The paddy variety ‘Mudgo’ is resistant to Brown plant hopper because of _____

(A) Nutritional deficiency

(B) Presence of toxins

(D) Presence of growth inhibitors

Ans. A

59. Longest duration of life cycle is observed in _________

(A) Rhinoceros beetle

(B) Giant water bugs

(D) Tortoise beetle

Ans. C

60. Tomato leaf curl virus is transmitted by _________

(A) Aphid

(B) Grasshopper

(D) Butterfly

Ans. C

61. Tree banding is useful for the control of _________

(A) Mango hopper

(B) Mango stem borer

(D) Mango mealy bug

Ans. D

62. When meso- and meta-thoracic and 8 abdominal spiracles are functional, the respiratory system is called _____

(A) Holopneustic

(B) Hemipneustic

(D) Metapneustic

Ans. A

63. In honey bees, the nectar is converted into honey:

(A) In the alimentary canal of queen

(B) In royal chamber

(D) In Special cells of the hive

Ans. C

64. Scientific name of cigarette beetle is _____

(A) Leucaena leucociphella

(B) Lasioderma serricorne

(D) Pempelia morosalis

Ans. B

65. Which insecticide is stored in the fat of milch animals?

(A) Malathion

(B) Lindane

(D) Endosulfan

Ans. C

66. The term cistorn, muton and recon were introduced by _______

(A) Watson and Crick

(B) Meselson

(D) Morgan

Ans. C

67. Extra nuclear genetic material is found in ______

(A) Plastid and nucleus

(B) Nucleus and cytoplasm

(D) Mitochondria and nucleus

Ans. C

68. DNA molecules makes a complete turn after every

(A) 20 Å

(B) 3.4 Å

(D) 10 base pairs

Ans. D

69. The distance between two successive nitrogenous base pairs is _______

(A) 34 Å

(B) 20 Å

(D) 3.4 Å

Ans. D

70. The enzyme DNA polymerase can work only in ________

(A) 3′ → 5′ direction

(B) Both the direction

(D) 5′ → 5′ direction

Ans. C

71. Plants developed in vitro culture from pollen grains are ______

(A) Androgenic plants

(B) Male plants

(D) Sterile plants

Ans. C

72. In the crown gall disease caused by Agrobacterium tumericans, opines are a responsible

(A) Responsible for tumour formation

(B) Made by Agrobacterium and used for pathogenesis

(D) Made by tumours and secreted

Ans. C

73. Which ones produce androgenic haploids in anther cultures?

(A) Anther wall

(B) Connective tissue

(D) Young pollen-grains

Ans. A

74. DNA sequence of ATTCGATG is transcribed as __________

(A) AUUCGAUG

(B) CAUCGAAU

(D) GUAGCUUA

Ans. C

75. DNA replication is _______

(A) Conservative and discontinuous

(B) Semiconservative and discontinuous

(D) Semiconservative and semidiscontinuous

Ans. B

76. Functional unit of gene that specifies synthesis of one polypeptide is ______

(A) Codon

(B) Recon

(D) Muton

Ans. C

77. Initiation Codon of protein synthesis (in eukaryotes) is _______

(A) GUA

(B) CCA

(D) AUG

Ans. D

78. Enzyme required for removing RNA primer during DNA replication is ________

(A) DNA primase

(B) DNA polymerase I

(D) DNA polymerase III

Ans. B

79. Which of the following enzyme is required to release the tension imposed by uncoiling of strands

(A) Endonuclease

(B) DNA gyrase

(D) DNA helicase

Ans. B

80. The type II restriction endonucleases, bind to DNA sites

(A) Using H-bonds for specificity

(B) Using non-sequence dependent backbone interactions

(D) All of the above

Ans. D

81. Nucleotides present in one turn of DNA helix

(A) 4

(B) 10

(D) 9

Ans. B

82. Most abundant RN A of the cell of _________

(A) tRNA

(B) mRNA

(D) hnRNA

Ans. C

83. Semiconservative DNA/Chromosome replication using 14N was demonstrated by _________

(A) Messelson

(B) Messelson and Stahl

(D) Hershey and Chase

Ans. B

84. Automated PCR machines use a heat stable ______

(A) DNA ligase

(B) Primase

(D) DNA polymerase

Ans. D

85. RNA populations can also be used as PCR templates after reverse transcription into

(A) cDNA

(B) mDNA

(D) r RNA

Ans. A

86. Polymerase chain reaction basically consists of __________

(A) Two Steps

(B) Four Steps

(D) Five Steps

Ans. C

87. The enzyme(s) used in PCR reaction is/are known as __________

(A) E. coli DNA polymerase

(B) Taq polymerase

(D) All of the above

Ans. B

88. One of the first enzymes synthesized by many bacteriophages is _______ an RNA-dependent RNA polymerase

(A) RNA transcriptase

(B) RNA ligase

(D) RNA replicase

Ans. D

89. Which protein keeps the prophage dormant and prevents virus reproduction

(A) Operator

(B) Repressor

(D) Enhancer

Ans. B

90. Enhancer regions in eukaryotic DNA are __________

(A) DNA Pol I binding sites

(B) Enhance the frequency of transcription

(D) Specific for given set of genes

Ans. B

91. In contrast to DNA polymerase, RNA polymerase

(A) Works only in 5’to 3′ direction

(B) Edits as it synthesizes

(D) Synthesizes RNA primer to initiate DNA synthesis.

Ans. D

92. Telomerase does which of the following

(A) Joins Okazaki fragments on the lagging strand

(B) Catalyzes DNA replication at the ends of chromosome

(D) Requires dCTP

Ans. B

93. Eukaryotic RNA polymerase I is specialized to transcribe which of the following

(A) mRNA

(B) Ribosomal RNA

(D) Mitochondrial RNA

Ans. B

94. Starch content of potatoes can be increased by using a bacterial gene, known as __________

(A) Sucrose phosphate synthase gene

(B) ADP glucose pyrophosphorylase gene

(D) None of the above

Ans. B

95. In a ________ protocol bacteria with engineered abilities to detoxify pollutants are intentionally released in an area

(A) Microcosm establishment

(B) Bioremediation

(D) Rhizosecretion

Ans. B

96. Actinomycin D is an inhibitor of _____

(A) Replication

(B) Transcription

(D) All of the above

Ans. B

97. Which of the following metabolites are implicated in stress tolerance

(A) Proline

(B) Betaines

(D) Both A and B

Ans. D

98. Which of the following gene is responsible for resistance against chilling?

(A) Polygalactouranase

(B) Glycerol 1 phosphate acyl transferase

(D) Sucrose phosphate synthase gene

Ans. B

99. Which of the following gene detoxifies herbicide phosphinothricin

(A) Nitrilase

(B) Phosphinothricin acetyl transferase

(D) All of the above

Ans. C

100. Biopatents are _______

(A) Right to use invention

(B) Right to use products

(D) Right to use process

Ans. C

101. Heavy, thick, slimy film of bacteria in the slow process of vinegar manufacture reduces

(A) The rate of hydrogenation

(B) The rate of esterification

(D) The rate of purification

Ans. C

102. The potential spoilage organism in beer is ________

(A) Saccharomyces diastaticus

(B) S. cerevisiae

(D) S. lactis

Ans. A

103. Which of the following is an anticancer drug

(A) 5- methyl thymidine

(B) Ara C

(D) PRPP (5-phosphorribosyl pyrophosphate)

Ans. B

104. Devine and Collego are two trade names for

(A) Bioherbicides

(B) Bioinsecticide

(D) Natural Insecticides

Ans. A

105. Gene for resistance to late blight of potato has been obtained from:

(A) Solatium vernei

(B) S. stoloniferum

(D) S. demissum

Ans. D

106. First bioinsecticide developed on commercial scale was _________

(A) Quinine

(B) DDT

(D) Sporeins

Ans. D

107. Gene for resistance to late blight of potato has been obtained from

(A) Solarium vernei

(B) S. stoloniferum

(D) S. demissum

Ans. D

108. What is the end product of leucine metabolism?

(A) Acetyl-CoA

(B) Oxaloacetic acid

(D) Acetyl carnitine

Ans. A

109. The first biochemical systems on Earth were probably inherited with which one of the following bio-molecules

(A) Carbohydrates

(B) Proteins

(D) RNA

Ans. D

110. The mutagenicity of a compound can be detected by ________

(A) ELISA

(B) Western blotting

(D) Any of the above

Ans. C

111. Which of the following statement is correct _______

(A) Apurinic site is created by the cleavage of phosphodiester bond

(B) Purine dimmer is less common

(D) None

Ans. B

112. One of the following ribonucleotide reductase (RR) is sensitive to oxygen

(A) Class I RR

(B) Class II RR

(D) Class IV RR

Ans. C

113. The enzyme/s responsible for strand separation to begin replication

(A) DNA helicase

(B) DNA polymerase

(D) Both A and B

Ans. A

114. Gene for resistance to late blight of potato has been obtained from ________

(A) Solanum vernei

(B) S. stoloniferum

(D) S. demissum

Ans. D

115. Which of the following is NOT required for RecA-dependent recombination between two DNA molecules

(A) Strand migration

(B) Ligation

(D) Nuclease digestion

Ans. C

116. An E.coli strain lacks DNA polymerase I would be deficient in DNA

(A) Repair

(B) Methylation

(D) Degradation

Ans. A

117. The size of Human genome is ________

(A) 3 billion bp

(B) 3 x 10⁹bp

(D) All of the above

Ans. B

118. Aminopurine is a mutagen and is analogue to _________

(A) Base

(B) Nucleotide

(D) Pyramidine

Ans. B

119. Which protein is necessary for Rho independent mechanism of termination of transcription?

(A) Sigma

(B) RNA polymerase

(D) DNA helicase

Ans. B

120. Which component of the open complex must change conformation before promoter escape?

(A) DNA polymerase

(B) Sigma factor

(D) Promoter region

Ans. B

121. Protein binding regions of DNA are identified by one of the following techniques

(A) Finger printing

(B) Foot printing

(D) Western blotting

Ans. B

122. Which of the following process require energy

(A) Ligation

(B) Transformation

(D) Hybridization

Ans. A

123. Enzyme papain is used with success to ______

(A) Increase meat production

(B) Leaven bread

(D) Tenderize meat

Ans. D

124. The reported increase in Rice yield through inoculation of Azolla is _______

(A) 10%

(B) 50%

(D) 20%

Ans. B

125. ABA in biopatenting is _________

(A) Access and benefit-sharing agreement

(B) Access to biological agent

(D) Active biomolecule agent

Ans. A

126. Biopiracy is related to ________

(A) Traditional knowledge

(B) Biomolecules, genes isolated from bioresources

(D) All of the above

Ans. D

127. Nucleotide arrangement in DNA can be seen by _________

(A) X-ray crystallography

(B) Electron microscope

(D) Light microscope

Ans. A

128. Which factor is required for the formation of closed complex in bacterial transcription initiation?

(A) Sigma factor

(B) Gre factor

(D) SSBPs

Ans. A

129. Mobile genetic element present in human genome are _________

(A) LINEs elements

(B) P and IS elements

(D) Both A and B

Ans. D

130. Father of DNA fingerprinting is ______

(A) Sunder Lal Bahuguna

(B) Wishwanath

(D) Rockfeller

Ans. C

131. Providing seeds and fertilizers to the farmers, it is example of _______

(A) Complexity

(B) Trialability

(D) None of the above

Ans. B

132. Adoption process includes how many stages according to the North central rural sociology

(A) 9

(B) 10

(D) 6

Ans. C

133. Adoption is a ______

(A) Social process

(B) Mental process

(D) None of the above

Ans. B

134. The percentage of early adopters are ______

(A) 2.5

(B) 13.5

(D) 16

Ans. B

135. The percentage of early majority are ______

(A) 2.5

(B) 13.5

(D) 16

Ans. C

136. The percentage of laggards are ______

(A) 2.5

(B) 13.5

(D) 16

Ans. D

137. First to adopt new idea, much ahead of other members in the community is called ______

(A) Early majority

(B) Early adopters

(D) None of the above

Ans. C

138. Excessive use of pesticides is example of _______

(A) Adoption

(B) Over adoption

(D) Rejection

Ans. B

139. Frequency of adopters when plotted over time follows a _______

(A) Bell shaped

(B) U -shaped

(D) Z- Shaped

Ans. A

140. Commutative frequency of adopters when plotted over time follows a ______

(A) Bell shaped

(B) U-shaped

(D) Z-Shaped

Ans. C

141. Individual has almost complete responsibility for the decision in ______

(A) Authority innovation decision

(B) Collective innovation decision

(D) None of the above

Ans. C

142. Correct sequence of group formation stages is ______

(A) Storming-forming-norming-performing

(B) Forming- norming-storming-performing

(D) Norming-storming-forming-performing

Ans. C

143. The word “Liassez faire” has been derived from ______

(A) Latin

(B) Greek

(D) French

Ans. D

144. Multimedia docs not covers

(A) Text

(B) Graphic

(D) Image

Ans. C

145. Hierarchy need theory of motivation was given by _________

(A) Chris Argyris

(B) Hezerberg

(D) Abraham H. Maslow

Ans. D

146. Warna wired project was first started from ______

(A) Maharashtra

(B) Madhya Pradesh

(D) Andhra Pradesh

Ans. A

147. Eastern Extension Education Institute (EEEI) situated in ______

(A) Assam

(B) Nagaland

(D) Sikkim

Ans. A

148. Who is father of Management by Objective (MBO)

(A) Peter Drucker

(B) Ingham

(D) Leela Mukharji

Ans. A

149. Grapevine communication is a ______

(A) Informal communication

(B) Formal communication

(D) None of the above

Ans. A

150. Highest KVK recorded in which state

(A) Uttar Pradesh

(B) Madhya Pradesh

(D) Andhra Pradesh

Ans. A

151. The last stage in the innovation-decision process as given by Roger is _____

(A) Adoption

(B) Evaluation

(D) Diffusion

Ans. C

152. The apex training institute at state level to give training support to ATMA is _______

(A) MANAGE

(B) EEI

(D) SAMETI

Ans. D

153. Large group when divided into smaller groups (units) for a short period of discussion is called _________

(A) Brain storming

(B) Buzz session

(D) Workshop

Ans. B

154. Which element/component is not related with effective learning situation

(A) Scientist

(B) Teacher

(D) Physical facilities

Ans. A

155. The chairman of planning commission is _________

(A) President

(B) Vice-President

(D) Person appointed by Prime minister

Ans. C

156. Which one of the following is not an element of diffusion process?

(A) Innovation

(B) Social system

(D) Persuasion

Ans. D

157. The Entrepreneur are catalyst in the process of _________

(A) Cultural development

(B) Social development

(D) Economic development

Ans. D

158. PTD in extension stands for ________

(A) Participatory Technology Development

(B) Planned Training Design

(D) None of the above

Ans. A

159. The effective rate of delivering a radio talk for extension purpose is ________

(A) 80-100 words/minute

(B) 120-140 words/minute

(D) 200-220 words/minute

Ans. B

160. A special type of working conference, usually of a week or more in duration with lectures, individual conference giving emphasis on small working groups is _______

(A) Conference

(B) Panel discussion

(D) Workshop

Ans. D

161. The process through which we arrive at expectations and anticipations of internal psychological state of man is _______

(A) Psychological observation

(B) Empathy

(D) Empowerment

Ans. B

162. Letters for communication in extension should follow the “4S Formula”. 4S include

(A) Shortness, Simplicity, Strength, Sincerity

(B) Swiftness, Shortness, Strength, Sincerity

(D) Severity, Shortness, Swiftness, Simplicity

Ans. A

163. A meeting in which a small group of resource persons present short prepared papers on a given topic is _________

(A) Workshop

(B) Symposium

(D) Case study

Ans. B

164. National Institute of Agricultural Extension Management (MANAGE) was set in __________

(A) 1984

(B) 1988

(D) 1982

Ans. C

165. The session of brainstorming in which the participants are expected to express their ideas without thinking about their reaction is _________

(A) Red session

(B) Yellow session

(D) Green session

Ans. D

166. ATMA is an important component under

(A) NARS

(B) NATP

(D) KVK

Ans. B

167. Take the odd man out from the following

(A) County club leadership

(B) Middle road leadership

(D) Team leadership

Ans. C

168. NATP funded by __________

(A) ICAR

(B) FAO

(D) ICAR

Ans. C

169. In which of the following social map is a tool most commonly used

(A) PRA

(B) RRA

(D) ATP

Ans. A

170. Community development programme (CDP) launched in __________

(A) 2^nd Oct 1952

(B) 2^nd Oct 1951

(D) 2^nd August 1951

Ans. A

171. Two tier ‘Panchayati raj’ given by __________

(A) Ashok Mehta

(B) Narayan Murthy

(D) Balwant Rai Mehta

Ans. A

172. National food security mission (NFSM) launched in _________

(A) 2001

(B) 2007

(D) 2009

Ans. B

173. Intensive Agriculture District Programme (IADP) was launched in _________

(A) 1980

(B) 1860

(D) 1961

Ans. C

174. Which is not projected aids

(A) Film strip

(B) Opaque projector

(D) Flip chart

Ans. D

175. Distance in any given direction one expect to go during a period of time

(A) Goal

(B) Aim

(D) None of the above

Ans. A

176. When plough works round a strip a strip of ploughed land, then it is called as ______

(A) Gathering

(B) Crowning

(D) Ridging

Ans. A

177. When plough works round a strip a strip of unploughed land, then it is called _________

(A) Gathering

(B) Crowning

(D) Ridging

Ans. C

178. The inside angle between shoe and body of desi plough varies from ________

(A) 42-45°

(B) 116-160°

(D) All of the above

Ans. B

179. Perfect seeding implies, correct

(A) Amount of seed per unit area

(B) Depth of dropping

(D) All of the above

Ans. D

180. A check row planting associated to ________

(A) Maintains row to row distance

(B) Both A and C

(D) None of the above

Ans. B

181. Methods of sowing are _________

(A) Broadcasting, Dibbling

(B) Drilling, Transplanting

(D) All of the above

Ans. D

182. Field ploughing with reversible type MB plough there is no

(A) Back furrow

(B) Both A and C

(D) None of them

Ans. B

183. Internal double run type seed metering mechanism is suitable for _________

(A) Larger seeds

(B) Smaller seeds

(D) None of them

Ans. C

184. Shovel type of furrow openers are most suitable for __________

(A) Stony soils

(B) Both A and C

(D) All of the above

Ans. B

185. In seed drill, the shoe type furrow openers works well

(A) Black cotton soil

(B) Stony soil

(D) Loamy soil

Ans. A

186. Testing of seed drill is done by __________

(A) Sticky belt method

(B) Both A and C

(D) None of them

Ans. B

187. In dibbling method for sowing of one hectare of land by requires

(A) 150 to 200 man-hours

(B) 250 to 300 man-hours

(D) 300 to 450 man-hours

Ans. C

188. Functions of sprayer are __________

(A) To break the liquid into droplets of effective size

(B) To distribute the droplets uniformly over the plants

(D) All of the above

Ans. D

189. Operating pressure of hand operated sprayer ranges from ______

(A) 1-7 kg/cm²

(B) 2-3 kg/cm²

(D) 5-7 kg/cm²

Ans. A

190. Power operated sprayer’s pressure ranges __________

(A) 1-7 kg/cm²

(B) 10-20 kg/cm²

(D) 60-110 kg/cm²

Ans. C

191. In high volume spray amount of liquid sprayed in one hectare in liters

(A) < 5

(B) 5-400

(D) None of the above

Ans. C

192. Amount of liquid required in one by spraying in low volume sprayer

(A) < 5 liters

(B) 5-400 liters

(D) All of the above

Ans. B

193. Ultra low volume spray uses amount of liquid

(A) < 5 liters/ha

(B) 5-400 liters/ha

(D) All of the above

Ans. A

194. A machine used to cut herbage crop is known as _________

(A) Combine

(B) Reaper

(D) Reaper binder

Ans. C

195. Machine used to cut the crop and deliver them in a uniform way in the row

(A) Combine

(B) Windrower

(D) Reaper binder

Ans. B

196. The term ferrule is associated to _________

(A) Reaper

(B) Mower

(D) Thresher

Ans. C

197. For proper alignment the cutter bar is set at about to the direction of motion

(A) 88°

(B) 111°

(D) 90°

Ans. A

198. In mounted vertical conveyor reaper the crop is guided by _________

(A) Flywheel

(B) Cutter bar

(D) Star wheel

Ans. D

199. Reaper binder cuts the crop at a height from the ground

(A) 20 cm

(B) 7 cm

(D) All of the above

Ans. C

200. Origin place of Olpad thresher is ______

(A) West Bengal

(B) Gujrat

(D) All of the above

Ans. B