175 + Agriculture Questions and Answers for Competitive Exams

175 + Agriculture Questions and Answers for Competitive Exams!

Contents:

1. MCQs on Agricultural Microbiology
2. MCQs on Entomology
3. MCQs on Agricultural Economics
4. MCQs on Agricultural Extension
5. MCQs on Agricultural Statistics
6. MCQs on Farm Machinery and Power Engineering

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1. MCQs on Agricultural Microbiology:

1. In the process of denitrification the involved bacteria is/are _________

(A) Thiobacillus denitrificans

(B) Micrococcus denitrificans

(C) Both A and B

(D) None of the above

Ans. C

2. Nitrifying bacteria is/are ______

(A) Autotrophs

(B) Heterotrophs

(C) Biotrophs

(D) All of the above

Ans. B

3. Vitamin B₂ is also known as ______

(A) Thiamine

(B) Riboflavin

(C) Pyridoxine

(D) None of the above

Ans. B

4. In which phase of microbial growth the bacteria increases in cell mass

(A) Log phase

(B) Lag phase

(C) Stationary phase

(D) Decline phase

Ans. B

5. In which phase cells divide at maximum rate permitted by the composition of the medium

(A) Log phase

(B) Lag phase

(C) Stationary phase

(D) Decline phase

Ans. A

6. The stage where viable cell number does not increase

(A) Log phase

(B) Lag phase

(C) Stationary phase

(D) Decline phase

Ans. D

7. Which is known as baker’s yeast

(A) Aspergillus niger

(B) Penicillium notatum

(C) Saccharomyces cerevisae

(D) Eremothecium gossypii (Ashbya gossypii)

Ans. C

8. Azospirillum is a ______ bacterium

(A) Symbiotic

(B) Asymbiotic

(C) Associative

(D) All of the above

Ans. C

9. Rhizobium is a _______ bacterium

(A) Symbiotic

(B) Asymbiotic

(C) Associative

(D) All of the above

Ans. A

10. Pseudomonas striata and Bacillus megaterium is known as _______

(A) Nitrogen fixing bacteria

(B) PSB

(C) VAM

(D) None of the above

Ans. B

11. Algae used in production of single cell protein

(A) Aspergillus niger

(B) Penicillium notatum

(C) Spirulina maxima

(D) Eremothecium gossypii (Ashbya gossypii)

Ans. C

12. Prokaryotes range from _______ µm in diameter

(A) 0.05 to 0.1

(A) 0.05 to 1.0

(C) 0.5 to 2.0

(D) 2.0 to 20

Ans. C

13. Which of the following antibiotic blocks the peptidoglycan synthesis

(A) Kanamycin

(A) Erythromycin

(C) Penicillin

(D) Streptomycin

Ans. C

14. The study of algae is called _______

(A) Mycology

(B) Bacteriology

(C) Phycology

(D) Immunology

Ans. C

15. Mycoplasma lack which of the following cell structure

(A) DNA

(B) Cell wall

(C) RNA

(D) Ribosome

Ans. B

16. Barophilic means

(A) Microorganism lives at high temperature

(B) Microorganism lives at high pressure

(C) Microorganism lives at alkaline condition

(D) Microorganism lives at acidic condition

Ans. A

17. Most usable form of nitrogen

(A) Ammonia

(B) Nitrate

(C) Nitrite

(D) Nitrous oxide

Ans. B

18. The most numerous groups of microorganism found in soil is ______

(A) Fungus

(B) Protozoa

(C) Algae

(D) Bacteria

Ans. D

19. Free living bacteria that fix the atmospheric Nitrogen

(A) Nitrosomonas

(B) Nitrobacter

(C) Rhizobium

(D) Azotobacter

Ans. D

20. VAM is a ______

(A) Fungus

(B) Algae

(C) Bacteria

(D) Protozoa

Ans. A

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2. MCQs on Entomology:

21. Central nervous system of insects arises as a thickening of _____

(A) Ectoderm

(B) Endoderm

(C) Mesoderm

(D) All of these

Ans. A

22. The phenomenon by which the immature insects are able to reproduce is known as _____

(A) Parthenogenesis

(B) Polyembryony

(C) Paedogenesis

(D) Castration

Ans. C

23. Nerve poisons act on the nervous system by _____

(A) Blocking Axons

(B) Inhibiting Ach E

(C) Blocking synapse

(D) Producing Acetylcholine

Ans. B

24. Control of insects by sterilization was first conceived by _____

(A) R.F. Chapman

(B) V.B. Wigglesworth

(C) E.F. Kipling

(D) Paul Mullar

Ans. C

25. Allomones are:

(A) Beneficial to the producer

(B) Beneficial to both

(C) Beneficial to the receiver

(D) None of these

Ans. A

26. The term ‘Paper factor’ refers to ________

(A) Insect feeding on paper

(B) Juvabione

(C) Ordinary paper

(D) Paper having Ecdysone

Ans. B

27. White grubs belongs to the Family:

(A) Scaraboaeidae

(B) Chrysomelidac

(C) Melolonthidae

(D) Cerambycidae

Ans. C

28. Pheromones are synthesized by _____

(A) Thoracic glands

(B) Neuro-secretary cells

(C) Glandular epidermal cells

(D) All of these

Ans. C

29. Insecticide having antagonistic effect with NPV is _____

(A) DDT

(B) Endosulfan

(C) Aldrin

(D) Malathion

Ans. D

30. Which of the following Orders of insects comprises parasitic insects:

(A) Hymenoptera

(B) Lepidoptera

(C) Thysanoptera

(D) Neuroptera

Ans. A

31. The type of Parthenogenesis where only males are produced:

(A) Arrhenotoky

(B) Amphitoky

(C) Thelytoky

(D) None of these

Ans. A

32. Token stimuli theory was postulated by ______

(A) House

(B) Frankel

(C) Painter

(D) Throsteinson

Ans. B

33. Which of the following is a larval-pupal parasitoid:

(A) Campoletis

(B) Cotesia

(C) Exorista

(D) Carcelia

Ans. D

34. Out of the following poisons which works as an anti-coagulant for the control of rats:

(A) Zinc phosphide

(B) Warfarin

(C) Strychmine

(D) Celphos

Ans. B

35. Which of the following insects does not belong to Order Lepidoptera:

(A) Groundnut leaf miner

(B) Pea leaf miner

(C) Citrus leaf miner

(D) None of these

Ans. B

36. Indian Institute of Natural Resins and Gums is located at _____

(A) Patna

(B) Coimbatore

(C) Cuttack

(D) Ranchi

Ans. D

37. Protein hydrolysate is used as an attractant for the control of _____

(A) Fruit fly

(B) Sawfly

(C) House fly

(D) Whitefly

Ans. A

38. Rodolia cardinalis has been successful in controlling:

(A) Apple wooly aphids

(B) Sugarcane shoot borer

(C) Cottony cushion scale

(D) Pink bollworm

Ans. C

39. Sticking type of legs are found in _________

(A) Honey bees

(B) House flies

(C) Lice

(D) Lac insects

Ans. B

40. Small apterous insects, compound eyes reduced or absent ectoparasites of birds and mammals are included in ________

(A) Strepsiptera

(B) Mallophaga

(C) Hymenoptera

(D) Diptera

Ans. B

41. Which of the following insects infests the grain in the field and then comes to storage:

(A) Ephestia cautela

(B) Sitotroga cerealella

(C) Tribolium castaneum

(D) All of these

Ans. B

42. The entomogcnous fungi tested under field conditions for pest control in India is ________

(A) Metarrhizium anisopliae

(B) Beauveria basiana

(C) Entomophthora virulenta

(D) All of these

Ans. D

43. Which of the following is a pupal parasitoid:

(A) Elasmus

(B) Xanthopimpla

(C) Tetrastichus

(D) All of these

Ans. B

44. Juvenile hormone is secreted by _____

(A) Corpora Cardiaca

(B) Corpora allata

(C) Protharacic glands

(D) Maxillary gland

Ans. B

45. The Indian Institute of Sugarcane Research is located at _____

(A) Coimbatore

(B) Kanpur

(C) Lucknow

(D) Patna

Ans. C

46. Weisman’s ring or Ring gland is present in order:

(A) Hymenoptera

(B) Lepidoptera

(C) Diptera

(D) Coleoptera

Ans. C

47. The damaging stage of pulse beetle is _____

(A) Adult

(B) Both adult & grub

(C) Grub

(D) Pupa

Ans. C

48. The caterpillars of Indarbela quadrinotata feed and damage the:

(A) Fruits

(B) Flowers

(C) Leaves

(D) Bark

Ans. D

49. The best method to control stored grain pests is by _____

(A) Fumigation

(B) Proper drying and storage

(C) Systemic insecticide

(D) Biological agents

Ans. A

50. The first transformation with delta-endotoxin gene from Bt was done in Belgium in 1985 in the crop:

(A) Paddy

(B) Tobacco

(C) Alfalfa

(D) Potato

Ans. B

51. The gland which produces pheromone in queen honey bee is ________

(A) Mandibular gland

(B) Labial gland

(C) Maxillary gland

(D) Pharyngeal gland

Ans. A

52. Ecdysone is produced by _____

(A) Corpora Cardiaca

(B) Corpora allata

(C) Protharacic glands

(D) Maxillary gland

Ans. C

53. The nozzle used for producing mist is _____

(A) Blast nozzle

(B) Kinetic energy nozzle

(C) Rotatory energy nozzle

(D) Annular nozzle

Ans. C

54. In solid cone nozzle, the solid cone of liquid is formed due to:

(A) Bigger size of the cap

(B) Central hole in swirl plate

(C) Bigger size of the orifice plate

(D) Smaller size of the strainer

Ans. B

55. Project Directorate of Biological control is located at _____

(A) Bangalore

(B) Lucknow

(C) Hyderabad

(D) Kanpur

Ans. A

56. Bacillus thuringeinsis is most effective at pH:

(A) 3 to 6

(B) 11 to 14

(C) 9 to 10

(D) None of these

Ans. C

57. Which of the following is the European species of honey bee:

(A) Apis dorsata

(B) Apis mellifera

(C) Apis indica

(D) Apis florea

Ans. B

58. Which of the following is parasitic protozoa attacking silkworm:

(A) Leptomonas pyrrhocoris

(B) Adeline tipulae

(C) Malpighamoeba mellifera

(D) Nosema bombycis

Ans. D

59. Which of the following bugs is a pest of brinjal:

(A) Painted bug

(B) Lace bug

(C) Plant bug

(D) Stink bug

Ans. B

60. Which of the following is a pest of sorghum belonging to Order Diptera:

(A) Chilo partellus

(B) Bagrada cruciferarum

(C) Rhopalosiphum maidis

(D) Atherigona soccata

Ans. D

3. MCQs on Agricultural Economics:

61. Which of the following curves cuts the AC curve at its lowest point

(A) AVC curve

(B) AFC curve

(C) Opportunity cost curve

(D) MC curve

Ans. A

62. Family and hired labour are examples of ________

(A) Complementary

(B) Substitutes

(C) Perfect substitutes

(D) Perfect complements

Ans. C

63. If the technology turns out to be inferior than the previous one, then the production function will shift

(A) Upwards shape

(B) Downwards

(C) Does not shift

(D) Changes the

Ans. B

64. Within the lines, the products are ________

(A) Complementary

(B) Supplementary

(C) Competitive

(D) Antagonistic

Ans. C

65. The support given in the form of export subsidies

(A) Green box

(B) Blue box

(C) Amber box

(D) All of the above

Ans. C

66. Unlike any other WTO agreement TRIPs agreement is covered by the Dispute Settlement Understanding

(A) True

(B) False

(C) Partially true

(D) Partially false

Ans. B

67. Trademarks enable the owner to include imitations that confuse the public

(A) True

(B) False

(C) Partially true

(D) Partially false

Ans. B

68. The term ‘free trade’ refers to ______

(A) Trade is free in inter states

(B) Lifting of trade restrictions

(C) Trade is free within the country

(D) All of the above

Ans. C

69. Which of the following is the best method of evaluating the project based on rate of return criterion

(A) Pay-back period

(B) Net present value

(C) Net present worth

(D) Benefit cost ratio

Ans. D

70. Which of the following boxes of subsidies distort the trade

(A) Green box

(B) Blue box

(C) Amber box

(D) All of the above

Ans. C

71. Which of the following constitutes economic justification for GATT

(A) Employment of labour

(B) Protection of infant industries

(C) Doctrine of comparative cost

(D) Conservation of strategic raw materials

Ans. C

72. If NPW is higher, switching value is ________

(A) Lower

(B) Higher

(C) No relation

(D) Zero

Ans. B

73. IRR is the discount factor, at which BCR is _______

(A) Maximum

(B) Lower

(C) Zero

(D) One

Ans. D

74. In which of the following measures, time value of money is not taken into consideration

(A) PBP

(B) N/K

(C) IRR

(D) NPV

Ans. A

75. Which of the following is not a component of project cycle

(A) Conception

(B) Evaluation

(C) Preparation

(D) Maturity

Ans. D

76. Which of the following is an undiscounted measure of project appraisal

(A) Benefit cost ratio

(B) Payback period

(C) Internal rate of return

(D) Net present worth

Ans. B

77. ‘Giffen’ goods refer to _______

(A) Stock of goods

(B) Lack of goods

(C) Inferior goods

(D) Superior goods

Ans. C

78. Which of the following cost is subtracted from income (GI) to get the value of family labour income

(A) Cost A1

(B) Cost A2

(C) Cost B

(D) Cost C

Ans. C

79. Omitted explanatory variables will cause ________

(A) Auto correlation

(B) Multicollincarity

(C) Heteroscedasticity

(D) Quasi autocorrelation

Ans. D

80. Speculative demand, depends on ______

(A) Income

(B) Profit

(C) Interest rate

(D) Autonomous

Ans. C

4. MCQs on Agricultural Extension:

81. A, B, C is character of poster ‘B’ stands for _________

(A) Brevity

(B) Brief

(C) Bachelor

(D) Beyond

Ans. B

82. The poster used in demonstration should have a letter height of ________

(A) 0.5 inches

(B) 1 inches

(C) 1.5 inches

(D) 2.5 inches

Ans. C

83. Comprehensive information about a topic is given in _________

(A) Leaflet

(B) Folder

(C) Bulletin

(D) Newsletter

Ans. C

84. Specific/short information on a particular topic

(A) Leaflet

(B) Folder

(C) Bulletin

(D) Newsletter

Ans. A

85. How many number of cards in flash card

(A) 10-12

(B) 24-48

(C) 15-24

(D) 48-60

Ans. A

86. How many pages in bulletin

(A) 10-12

(B) 24-48

(C) 15-24

(D) 48-60

Ans. B

87. Single printed sheet of paper of big size, folded once or twice and gives essential information relating to particular topic is _______

(A) Leaflet

(B) Folder

(C) Bulletin

(D) Newsletter

Ans. B

88. Miniature newspaper in good quality paper, containing information relating to the activity and achievements of the organization is _______

(A) Leaflet

(B) Folder

(C) Bulletin

(D) Newsletter

Ans. D

89. The word entrepreneur is drive from which word

(A) Communis

(B) Entreprendre

(C) Entrepren

(D) Enterdepend

Ans. B

90. Relative speed with which an innovation is adopted by members of a social system is called _______

(A) Rate of adoption

(B) Innovativeness

(C) Adoption

(D) Diffusion

Ans. A

91. Rejection occurs at ______

(A) Decision stage

(B) Implementation

(C) Knowledge

(D) Persuasion

Ans. A

92. Discontinuance occurs at ______

(A) Decision stage

(B) Implementation

(C) Confirmation

(D) Persuasion

Ans. C

93. Re-invention occurs at ________

(A) Decision stage

(B) Implementation

(C) Confirmation

(D) Persuasion

Ans. B

94. A series of cards presented before an audience one by one to tell a complete story is called ______

(A) Leaflet

(B) Folder

(C) Bulletin

(D) Flash card

Ans. D

95. Which of the following adopters are few in number

(A) Early adopters

(B) Leggards

(C) Innovator

(D) Late majority

Ans. C

96. The last to adopt an innovation in a social system

(A) Early adopters

(B) Leggards

(C) Innovator

(D) Late majority

Ans. B

97. Most respectable adopters category is ______

(A) Early adopters

(B) Leggards

(C) Innovator

(D) Late majority

Ans. A

98. Skeptical adopters category is ______

(A) Early adopters

(B) Leggards

(C) Innovator

(D) Late majority

Ans. D

99. A decision to make full use of an innovation as the best course of action available is _________

(A) Diffusion

(B) Adoption

(C) Communication

(D) None of the above

Ans. B

100. Diffusion includes how many elements

(A) 6

(B) 7

(C) 4

(D) 8

Ans. C

5. MCQs on Agricultural Statistics:

101. Diagram are tools of ______

(A) Collection of data

(B) Analysis of data

(C) Presentation of data

(D) Summarization of data

Ans. C

102. Frequency of a variable is always

(A) In percentage

(B) An integer

(C) A fraction

(D) None of the above

Ans. B

103. Which of the following statement is not correct

(A) The bars in a histogram touch each

(B) Multiple bar diagram also exist

(C) The bar in a column chart touch each other

(D) There are bar diagram which are known as broken bar diagram

Ans. C

104. With the help of histogram we can prepare

(A) Frequency polygon

(B) Frequency curve

(C) Frequency distribution

(D) All of the above

Ans. D

105. The arithmetic mean of a set of 50 numbers is 38. If two numbers of the set namely 45 and 55 are discarded, the mean of remaining observations is ________

(A) 38.5

(B) 37.5

(C) 36.5

(D) 39.5

Ans. B

106. The arithmetic mean of the n numbers of a series is x̅. The sum of first (n-1) term is k, then the n^th number is ______

(A) x̅ – k

(B) x̅ – nk

(C) n x̅ – k

(D) n(x̅ – k)

Ans. C

107. A group of 10 items has arithmetic mean 6, if the arithmetic mean of 4 of these items is 7.5, then the mean of remaining items is ______

(A) 6.5

(B) 6.0

(C) 5.5

(D) 5.0

Ans. D

108. The mean of a set of number is x̅. If each number increased by k, then the mean of new set is ______

(A) x̅ + k

(B) x̅ – k

(C) kx̅

(D) x̅/k

Ans. A

109. The mean of a set of number is x̅. If each number multiplied by k, then the mean of new set is ______

(A) x̅ + k

(B) x̅ – k

(C) kx̅

(D) x̅/k

Ans. C

110. For a set of values of a discrete variable, the sum of absolute values of deviations from the median

(A) Minimum

(B) Maximum

(C) Neither maximum nor minimum

(D) None of these

Ans. A

111. Which of the following represent median

(A) First quartile

(B) Fiftieth percentile

(C) Sixth decile

(D) None of the above

Ans. B

112. If the grouped data has open ended classes, one cannot calculate

(A) Mode

(B) Median

(C) Mean

(D) Quartile

Ans. C

113. Geometric mean is a good measure of central value if the data are ________

(A) Categorical

(B) Ordinal scale

(C) In ratio or proportions

(D) None of the above

Ans. C

114. To fine rate of population growth which measure is appropriate?

(A) Median

(B) Mode

(C) Harmonic mean

(D) Geometric mean

Ans. D

115. Extreme values has no effect on ________

(A) Median

(B) Mode

(C) Harmonic mean

(D) Geometric mean

Ans. A

116. Harmonic mean is better than other means if the data are for __________

(A) Heights or length

(B) Binary values like 0 and 1

(C) Ratio or proportions

(D) Speed or rate

Ans. C

117. The correct relationship between AM, GM and HM is ________

(A) AM = GM = HM

(B) AM < GM < HM

(C) AM > GM > HM

(D) AM > HM > GM

Ans. C

118. A man travels at a speed of 20 km/h and then returns at a speed of 30 km/h. His average speed of the whole journey is ______

(A) 25 km/h

(B) 24 km/h

(C) 24.5 km/h

(D) None of these

Ans. B

119. Quartile deviation is nearly equal to ______

(A) 3/2 □

(B) 2/3 □

(C) □

(D) None of the above

Ans. B

120. Which measure of dispersion can be calculated in case of open end intervals?

(A) Standard deviation

(B) Quartile deviation

(C) Coefficient of variation

(D) Range

Ans. B

121. If the observation of a raw data, whose variance is □^□, multiplied by k, then the variance of the new set is ______

(A) □² □²

(B) □² + □²

(C) □ + □²

(D) □²

Ans. A

122. Quartile deviation is equal to ______

(A) Inter quartile range

(B) Double the inter quartile range

(C) Half of the inter quartile range

(D) None of the above

Ans. C

123. The variance of first natural numbers is ________

Ans. A

124. Let X and Y be two variable with the same variance and U and V be two variables such that U = X + Y and V = X – Y then Cov (U, V) is equal to _______

(A) Cov (X, Y)

(B) +1

(C) -1

(D) 0

Ans. D

125. Greater is the difference between mean and mode, skewness will be ______

(A) Less

(B) More

(C) Depends on variance

(D) None of the above

Ans. B

126. If each value of a series is multiplied by a constant ‘c’, the coefficient of variation as compared to original value is ________

(A) Increased

(B) Decreased

(C) Unaltered

(D) Zero

Ans. C

127. For a negatively skewed distribution, the correct inequality is _________

(A) Mean < mode

(B) Mode < median

(C) Mean < median

(D) None of the above

Ans. A

128. The extreme values in a negatively skewed distribution lies in the

(A) Middle

(B) Left tail

(C) Right tail

(D) Anywhere

Ans. B

129. Bowley’s coefficient of skewness lies between

(A) 0 < S_k < + 1

(B) -1 < S_k < 0

(C) -1 < S_k < +1

(D) -∞ < S_k < + ∞

Ans. C

130. Pearson coefficient of skewness lies between

(A) 0 < S_k < + 3

(B) -3 < S_k < +3

(C) -3 < S_k < 0

(D) -∞ < S_k < + ∞

Ans. B

131. In case of leptokurtic distribution

(A) □₂ > 3

(B) □₂ < 3

(C) □₂ = 3

(D) None of the above

Ans. A

132. The test statistic for testing the significance of correlation coefficient is ________

Ans. B

133. The statistic t for testing the hypothesis □ = □ based on a sample of size n from a bivariate population has d.f.

(A) n

(B) n-1

(C) n-2

(D) n-3

Ans. C

134. If correlation coefficient between two random variable X and Y be negative, than which of the following statement is false

(A) The regression coefficient b_yx and b_xy are both negative

(B) The regression of Y on X is linear and the line is downward sloping

(C) E(XY) < E(X)E(Y)

(D) The correlation coefficient between X and Y is positive

Ans. D

135. The correlation coefficient r between x and y is 0.5, their covariance is 16. If the standard deviation of x is 4, then the standard deviation of y is equal to?

(A) 4

(B) 8

(C) 16

(D) 64

Ans. B

136. Let r be the correlation coefficient between two variable x and y. if the variable x is multiplied by 3 and the variable y is increased by 2, then the correlation coefficient of the new set of variables is ________

(A) r

(B) 3r

(C) 3r + 2

(D) 3r – 2

Ans. A

137. Spareman’s rank correlation will be appropriate when data are ________

(A) Quantitative

(B) Qualitative

(C) Both (a) and (b)

(D) Ordinal

Ans. B

138. Where quantitative measurement is difficult, correlation is calculated by ________

(A) Variance-covariance method

(B) Cannot be measured

(C) Rank difference method

(D) None of the above

Ans. C

6. MCQs on Farm Machinery and Power Engineering:

139. Of the total heat generated from IC engine, the quantity of heat utilized by engine is about

(A) 20-26%

(B) 26-30%

(C) 30-40%

(D) All of the above

Ans. B

140. In IC engine the cowling is associated to __________

(A) Piston

(B) Crankcase

(C) Cylinder

(D) Crankshaft

Ans. C

141. At which temperature in petrol engine thermostat valve starts open and fully open

(A) 61°C and 72°C

(B) 71°C and 82°C

(C) 81°C and 92°C

(D) Both A and B

Ans. B

142. At which temperature in diesel engine thermostat valve starts open and fully open

(A) 61°C and 72°C

(B) 71°C and 82°C

(C) 82°C and 88°C

(D) Both A and B

Ans. C

143. In bellows type thermostat valve, the liquid filled in vacuum is __________

(A) Alcohol

(B) Sprit

(C) Methane

(D) Ethane

Ans. A

144. An agricultural tractor is a _________

(A) Self-propelled power

(B) Prime mover unit

(C) Traction engine

(D) All of the above

Ans. D

145. Tractor engine or traction engine was invented by ________

(A) Rudolph diesel (1890)

(B) George H. Harrish (1890)

(C) J. Watt (1860)

(D) N. Hudson (1896)

Ans. B

146. Tractor manufacturing was started in India in 1960-61 by _________

(A) HMT

(B) Hindustan Tractors Ltd.

(C) M/S Eicher Good Earth

(D) Good Year Earth

Ans. C

147. Crawler tractor is also known as ________

(A) Track type

(B) Both A and C

(C) Chain type

(D) Wheel type

Ans. B

148. For the farm area of 40 ha land, under double cropping pattern tractor size should be _________

(A) 20-25 hp

(B) 30-35 hp

(C) 40-45 hp

(D) 50-55 hp

Ans. B

149. The crankshaft and rear axle of tractor, are attached at _________

(A) 30°

(B) 60°

(C) Right angle to each other

(D) 120°

Ans. C

150. Dog clutch is mainly used in _________

(A) Tractors

(B) Stationery engines

(C) Scooter

(D) Power tillers

Ans. D

151. The arrangement in tractor, which permits one of the rear wheel of to rotate slower or faster, is called __________

(A) Clutch

(B) Differential

(C) P.T.O.

(D) Crankshaft

Ans. B

152. Hydraulic brake works on the principle of __________

(A) Bernoulli’s Law

(B) Newton’s Law

(C) Ohm’s Law

(D) Pascal’s Law

Ans. D

153. In hydraulic brake system of tractors, the pressure in pump varies from ______

(A) 150-175 kg/cm²

(B) 40-75 kg/cm²

(C) 10-30 kg/cm²

(D) Both A and B

Ans. A

154. As per ASAE standard, the PTO speed under operating load is equal to _________

(A) 540 ± 10 rpm

(B) Both A and C

(C) 1000 ± 10 rpm

(D) None of the above

Ans. C

155. Inflation pressure of rear wheel of tractor varies from __________

(A) 0.8 to 1.2 kg/cm²

(B) 1.5 to 2.5 kg/cm²

(C) Both A and B

(D) None of the above

Ans. A

156. Inflation pressure of front wheel of tractor varies from ________

(A) 0.8 to 1.2 kg/cm²

(B) 1.5 to 2.5 kg/cm²

(C) Both A and B

(D) None of the above

Ans. B

157. Brake testing of tractor is done at a speed of __________

(A) 10kmph

(B) 15 kmph

(C) 25 kmph

(D) 30 kmph

Ans. C

158. Pressure ranges in power tiller tyre

(A) 0.8 to 1.2 kg/cm²

(B) 1.5 to 2.5 kg/cm²

(C) 1.1 to 1.4 kg/cm²

(D) None of the above

Ans. C

159. For the farm area of 40 ha land, under single cropping pattern tractor size should be _________

(A) 20-25 hp

(B) 30-35 hp

(C) 40-45 hp

(D) 50-55 hp

Ans. A

160. The working life of tractor is at about _______

(A) 15000 hours

(B) 10000 hours

(C) 5000 hours

(D) 8000 hours

Ans. B

161. Who is the father of tillage?

(A) Jethro Tull

(B) Mason Vaugh

(C) George Hudson

(D) Charles W. Hart

Ans. A

162. The name of book written by Jethro Tull

(A) Elements of Agricultural Engg.

(B) Operations in Tillage Practices

(C) Horse Hoe Husbandry

(D) None of the above

Ans. C

163. The operation performed to open up the cultivable land with a view to prepare seed bed for growing crops is known as ________

(A) Secondary tillage

(B) Zero tillage

(C) Conservation tillage

(D) Primary tillage

Ans. D

164. Which one is the combination of primary tillage implements?

(A) MB plough and Disc harrow

(B) Desi plough and Land Leveler

(C) Disc plough and Rotavator

(D) Chisel plough and Subsoiler

Ans. D

165. Functions of MB plough are __________

(A) Cutting the soil

(B) Pulverizing the soil

(C) Lifting and turning the soil

(D) All of the above

Ans. D

166. Mould Board of MB plough is made of _________

(A) Chilled cost iron

(B) Cost iron

(C) Soft center steel

(D) None of the above

Ans. C

167. Frog of MB plough are made of ___________

(A) Chilled cost iron

(B) Cost iron

(C) Soft center steel

(D) None of the above

Ans. B

168. The forward end of cutting edge of share, which actually penetrates into the soil, called as __________

(A) Gunnel

(B) Wing of share

(C) Heel

(D) Point of share

Ans. D

169. In grassy lands, best type of Mould Board suited

(A) Slat type

(B) Sod or breaker type

(C) Stubble type

(D) None of the above

Ans. B

170. The function of jointer is to _______

(A) Cut small ribbon like furrow slice

(B) Cut grasses of trashes

(C) Reduce the draft of plough

(D) Absorb the side movement

Ans. A

171. Ploughing depth of MB plough varies from ______

(A) 10-15 cm

(B) 20-25 cm

(C) 30-35 cm

(D) 45-100 cm

Ans. B

172. In MB plough the furrow width can be increased by _______

(A) Increasing the horizontal suction

(B) Decreasing the vertical suction

(C) Reducing side draft

(D) Sharpening the share

Ans. A

173. Pulverization of soil is measured by _______

(A) Cone Penetrometer

(B) Hygrometer

(C) Leveler

(D) Sprit Level

Ans. A

174. Field ploughing with reversible type MB plough there is no

(A) Back furrow

(B) Both A and C

(C) Dead furrow

(D) None of them

Ans. B

175. In disc plough disc angle varies from _________

(A) 15-25°

(B) 20-25°

(C) 42-45°

(D) 30-40°

Ans. C

176. Angle between the plane of cutting edge of disc and the direction of travel is called _________

(A) Disc angle (42-45°)

(B) Both A and C

(C) Tilt angle (15-25°)

(D) None of the above

Ans. A

177. An open trench left in between two adjacent strips of land after ploughing is finished, called __________

(A) Back furrow

(B) Open furrow

(C) Dead furrow

(D) None of the above

Ans. C

178. Unploughed land left and each end of the field for turning of tractor is called ______

(A) Back furrow

(B) Open furrow

(C) Dead furrow

(D) Head land

Ans. D