200 + Agriculture Questions and Answers for Students

200 + Agriculture Questions and Answers for Students!

1. Crushing of food in insects is done by _____

(A) Rectal papilla

(B) Crop

(D) All of these

Ans. C

2. Insects have evolved from ______

(A) Annelids

(B) Reptiles

(D) Fishes

Ans. A

3. Diflubenzuron is a derivative of _____

(A) Difloro compounds

(B) Urea

(D) Phosphonic acid

Ans. B

4. Fore-gut is lined internally by _____

(A) Peritrophic membrane

(B) Intima

(D) Taenidia

Ans. B

5. In which Order of insects, females have no pupal stage but males have:

(A) Mallophaga

(B) Ephemeroptera

(D) Dictyoptera

Ans. C

6. Dasineura lini is a pest of _____

(A) Castor

(B) Sesamum

(D) Linseed

Ans. D

7. Indicate which represents the analogous group:

(A) Wings of butterfly and birds

(B) Forewings of moth and fins of fish

(D) Hind wings of butterfly and legs of bird

Ans. A

8. The prothoracicotropic hormone is secreted by _____

(A) Prothoracic gland

(B) Corpora cardiaca

(D) Neuro-secretory cells

Ans. D

9. Name the fumigant which is used for killing insects in storage as well as for plant fumigation:

(A) Ethylene dibromide

(B) Aluminium phosphide

(D) EDCT mixture

Ans. C

10. Indicate the correct sequence through which the following insecticides came into use:

(A) BHC, Rotenone, Malathion and Lead arsenate

(B) BHC, Rotenone, Lead and arsenate Malathion

(D) Rotenone, BHC, Lead arsenate and Malathion

Ans. C

11. Insecticides banned by the Government of India for agricultural use:

(A) Ethyl parathion

(B) BHC

(D) All of these

Ans. D

12. Pheromones are also known as _____

(A) Antibiotics

(B) Hormones

(D) Attractants

Ans. C

13. Order Odonata includes:

(A) Mayflies

(B) Scorpionfly

(D) Damselfly

Ans. D

14. Crypto-nephridial condition of Malpighian tubules is found in _____

(A) Collembola

(B) Hemiptera

(D) Diptera

Ans. C

15. Juvenile hormone is secreted by _________

(A) Corpora allata

(B) Protocerebrum

(D) Tritocerebrum

Ans. A

16. Hamulate type of wing coupling is found in ______

(A) Butterfly

(B) Locust

(D) Honey bee

Ans. D

17. Johnston’s organ is found in _________

(A) Antennae

(B) Legs

(D) Cerci

Ans. A

18. Entry of sperm into the egg takes place through:

(A) Micropyle

(B) Aeropyle

(D) None of these

Ans. A

19. Tracheal tubes do not collapse due to the presence of __________

(A) Air sacs

(B) Taenidia

(D) Spiracles

Ans. B

20. The magnitude of membrane potential at rest across an axonic membrane is ______

(A) + 70 mv

(B) 100mv

(D) – 100 mv

Ans. C

21. Primitive type of venetion similar to fossil insects is refereed as _____

(A) Pterostigma

(B) Retinaculam

(D) Frenulam

Ans. C

22. The process by which one segment is added after each of the three moults in Order Protura is known as ______

(A) Anamorphosis

(B) Metamorphosis

(D) None of these

Ans. A

23. Type of wing coupling apparatus in honey bees is _____

(A) Frenulate

(B) Hamulate

(D) Amplexiform

Ans. B

24. Name the Order of insects with highest number of described species:

(A) Lepidoptera

(B) Coleoptera

(D) Hemiptera

Ans. B

25. The hormone responsible for pupal-adult ecdysis is _________

(A) Ecdysone

(B) Bursicon

(D) Juvenile hormone

Ans. C

26. Family labour income is equal to _________

(A) Gross income – Cost B

(B) Gross income – Cost A₁

(D) Gross income – Cost C

Ans. A

27. Marginal farmers are those farmers whose land holding is up to _________

(A) 0.5 ha

(B) 1.0 ha

(D) None of the above

Ans. B

28. A market in which goods are exchanged for money immediately after the sale is called ________

(A) Forward market

(B) Secular market

(D) Spot market

Ans. D

29. Shadow prices are also known as ______

(A) Current Prices

(B) Market Prices

(D) Shut down Prices

Ans. C

30. Regional Rural Bank is sponsored by ______

(A) Scheduled bank

(B) RBI

(D) None of the above

Ans. A

31. Elasticity of production in the first zone of production function is ______

(A) Greater than one

(B) Less than one

(D) Equal to one

Ans. A

32. The test ratio can be derived from the balance sheet is _______

(A) Operating ratio

(B) Fixed ratio

(D) Gross ratio

Ans. B

33. Depreciation is a ______

(A) Cash cost

(B) Supplementary Cost

(D) Non-cash cost

Ans. C

34. Which type of market condition is observed in the kinked demand curve?

(A) Oligopoly

(B) Duopoly

(D) Monopsony

Ans. A

35. The law impaling “Supply creates its own demand” was given by ______

(A) Keynes

(B) Say

(D) Recardo

Ans. B

36. WTO came into existence in ________

(A) 1990

(B) 1995

(D) 2005

Ans. B

37. The production possibilities frontier shows _______

(A) Maximum production from given resources

(B) Production from given resources is limited

(D) Producing more public goods reduces supply of private goods

Ans. A

38. When a new variety of crop is introduced, which farm management approach is appropriate?

(A) Complete budgeting

(B) Non-budgeting

(D) Programme planning

Ans. C

39. The borrower cannot sell but use an asset till the loan rapid

(A) Mortgage

(B) Pledge

(D) None of the above

Ans. B

40. According to Harrod Domar model growth is directly related to ______

(A) K/O ratio and

(B) Saving and K/O ratio inversely related to saving

(D) Inversely to saving and K/O ratio

Ans. C

41. In a amortized decreasing plan, the principal

(A) Remains fixed

(B) Increases

(D) Decreases along with interest

Ans. D

42. The income elasticity of agriculture commodities is ________

(A) Perfect elastic

(B) Perfect inelastic

(D) Comparatively elastic

Ans. B

43. Net nation product is the difference between the Gross National Product and _______

(A) Indirect tax

(B) Depreciation

(D) Gross Domestic Product

Ans. B

44. Cause and effect relationship is called _______

(A) Applied Science

(B) Normative Science

(D) Physical Science

Ans. C

45. Risk in agriculture can be mitigated by which type of farming

(A) Corporate farming

(B) Mixed farming

(D) Contract farming

Ans. B

46. The biggest nationalized bank is _______

(A) Punjab National Bank

(B) Canara Bank

(D) SBI

Ans. D

47. First Cooperative Societies Act was passed in the year

(A) 1904

(B) 1901

(D) 1947

Ans. A

48. CRAFICARD committee recommended the establishment of ________

(A) RBI

(B) NABARD

(D) AFC

Ans. B

49. From which of the following, farmer cannot directly avail loan

(A) PACS

(B) DCMS

(D) ARDC

Ans. D

50. The Law of diminishing return is otherwise called as principle of _______

(A) Added returns and Added costs

(B) Average returns and Average costs

(D) All of the above

Ans. A

51. Nilokheri experiment started in 1948, which is started by ________

(A) Thakusr Das

(B) S.K. Dey

(D) T. Prakashan

Ans. B

52. According to use result demonstration is which type of communication method

(A) Individual method

(B) Group method

(D) None of the above

Ans. B

53. Toll free no of Kisan Call Centre

(A) 18001801552

(B) 18001551550

(D) 18004251556

Ans. C

54. Which is not an element of diffusion

(A) Time

(B) Social system

(D) Communication

Ans. D

55. Venturesome is characteristic of which adopters categories

(A) Innovators

(B) Leggards

(D) Early adopters

Ans. A

56. The term ‘Entrepreneur’ is a ______ word

(A) Latin

(B) French

(D) Roman

Ans. B

57. Who first used the term ‘Entrepreneur’

(A) Max webber

(B) Peter Drucker

(D) Schumpeter

Ans. C

58. The person who leaves the ventures as soon as venture is created are called

(A) Managerial entrepreneur

(B) Innovative entrepreneur

(D) Empire builders

Ans. C

59. The persons who prefer to continue in the same venture by transforming themselves to fit the changing demands known as (Ex. Md. Yunus founder of Gramin Bank, Bangladesh)

(A) Managerial entrepreneur

(B) Innovative entrepreneur

(D) Empire builders

Ans. A

60. Ratan Tata and Dhiru Bhai Ambani are example of which type of entrepreneur

(A) Managerial entrepreneur

(B) Innovative entrepreneur

(D) Empire builders

Ans. D

61. SWOT is basically tool for

(A) Decision making

(B) Motivating

(D) Controlling

Ans. A

62. The word ‘management’ has its root in

(A) Greek

(B) Latin

(D) Sanskrit

Ans. C

63. Which kind of management skill is most important or essential for people working at top position is

(A) Technical skill

(B) Conceptual skill

(D) Leadership skill

Ans. B

64. ‘POSDCORB’ as management function given by

(A) Urwick

(B) Shail

(D) Gullick and Urwick

Ans. D

65. “Lab to land programme” in India was started on the golden jubilee celebration of

(A) IARI

(B) Manage

(D) NIESBUD

Ans. C

66. Single window system was

(A) NAIP

(B) ATIC

(D) NATP

Ans. B

67. “Betting on strong horse” is slogan of _________

(A) IAAP

(B) HYVP

(D) IRDP

Ans. C

68. At which place, R.N. Tagore started his work for rural reconstruction

(A) Vardha

(B) Shantiniketan

(D) Sevagram

Ans. B

69. Marthandam project was started under the a spices of YMCA by ______

(A) F.L. Bryne

(B) Albert Mayer

(D) Spencer hatch

Ans. D

70. Nilokheri project was also called _________

(A) Mazdoor Manzil

(B) Kishan Manzil

(D) Mazdoor Kishan Manzil

Ans. A

71. Which is not an element of diffusion

(A) Innovation

(B) Social System

(D) Channel

Ans. C

72. Innovation decision process given by _______

(A) Berlo

(B) Leela Mukharji

(D) Etlin

Ans. C

73. Seeing is believing is principle of _______

(A) Training

(B) Lecture

(D) Result demonstration

Ans. D

74. Use and form classification given by _______

(A) Wilson and Gallup

(B) Pooja and Kent

(D) Jams Stuart

Ans. A

75. Method demonstration works on the principles of __________

(A) Learning by believing

(B) Learning by Teaching

(D) Learning by doing

Ans. D

76. The size of circular sample plot should be of _________

(A) 0.05 ha

(B) 0.03 ha

(D) 0.4 ha

Ans. A

77. When the crop density is 1.5 then it is known as _________

(A) Over stock

(B) Full stock

(D) All of these

Ans. D

78. The tree species for which multiple yield table is prepared in India is ________

(A) Delonix regia

(B) Cedrus deodara

(D) Bombex ceiba

Ans. B

79. The age of felled trees can be determine by the method of _________

(A) Branch analysis

(B) Girth analysis

(D) All of these

Ans. C

80. Site quality concept was given by __________

(A) Hirata

(B) Bitterlich

(D) Brandis

Ans. C

81. Horizontal point sampling was developed by _________

(A) Stenley

(B) Peterson

(D) Bitterlich

Ans. C

82. Yield table is not applicable to __________

(A) Even aged forest

(B) Uneven aged forest

(D) Pure forest

Ans. B

83. The haga altimeter measures _________

(A) Diameter

(B) Taper

(D) Volume

Ans. B

84. Selection of sample trees should not be less than

(A) 6

(B) 8

(D) 12

Ans. D

85. Quarter girth formula is ________

(A) (g/4)²x L

(B) (g/4)²x L

(D) (g/3)²x L

Ans. A

86. Distance between ground and crown-point is known as __________

(A) Crown height

(B) Crown length

(D) Bole length

Ans. C

87. The DBH of a leaning tree in sloping ground is measured in __________

(A) Sloping side

(B) Uphill side

(D) All of these

Ans. B

88. When the CAI is equal the MAI, the MAI is ___________

(A) Stationary

(B) More

(D) None of these

Ans. A

89. The Indian Institute of Forest Management (IIFM) is located at __________

(A) Jhansi

(B) Dehradun

(D) Bhopal

Ans. D

90. Indian Wildlife Protection Act was enacted in the year

(A) 1947

(B) 1972

(D) 1990

Ans. B

91. A plan of operation for the management of the forest is known as __________

(A) Working plan

(B) Working circle

(D) Forest plan

Ans. A

92. Highest authority of forest in a state is __________

(A) ACF

(B) RO

(D) PCCF

Ans. D

93. Joint forest planning and management scheme was passed in NFP of __________

(A) 1988

(B) 1999

(D) 2012

Ans. A

94. Working plan is generally prepared for the period

(A) 5 year

(B) 8 year

(D) 15 year

Ans. C

95. MAI of Indian forest is __________

(A) 1.5 m³/ha

(B) 2.5 m³/ha

(D) 4.5 m³/ha

Ans. B

96. The CAI and MAI was cross each other at the

(A) Rotation age

(B) Even age

(D) All of these

Ans. A

97. The first National Forest Policy was formulated based on the recommendation given by __________

(A) Dr. Brandis

(B) Dr. Voelker

(D) Dr. Thomas

Ans. B

98. The national park and wildlife sanctuaries of India arc declared by _________

(A) Govt. of India

(B) State Govt.

(D) Forest minister

Ans. B

99. Unit of working plan is __________

(A) Compartment

(B) Working circle

(D) Division

Ans. D

100. Smallest functional territorial unit is ___________

(A) Working compartment

(B) Compartment

(D) Working circle

Ans. C

101. In N-linked glycosylation, the oligosaccharide chain is attached to protein by ______

(A) Asparagines

(B) Arginine

(D) Threonine

Ans. A

102. Genetically engineered bacteria are being used in commercial production of ______

(A) Melatonin

(B) Human insulin

(D) Thyroxine

Ans. B

103. The widely known Watson Crick structure of DNA is representative of which structural form of DNA double helix

(A) A-form

(B) B-form

(D) Z-form

Ans. B

104. The following are features of DNA replication except

(A) Semi-conservative

(B) Semi-discontinuous

(D) Chain growth in the 5′ to 3′ direction

Ans. C

105. Which of the following does not have introns

(A) DNA

(B) Non-processed pseudo genes

(D) Primary RNA transcript

Ans. C

106. The variant fragment that distinguish one individual from another one is called ______

(A) Variant fragment

(B) Differing fragment

(D) All of the above

Ans. C

107. If the molar amount of G in a DNA sample is 20%, what is the molar amount of T in the sample?

(A) 20%

(B) 40%

(D) 60%

Ans. C

108. If the strand of DNA has 35 nucleotide how many phosphodiester bonds would exist?

(A) 34

(B) 24

(D) 70

Ans. C

109. Which stop codon has been found to encode selenocysteine

(A) UAA

(B) AGA

(D) UGA

Ans. D

110. A gene that has multiple phenotypic effect

(A) Polygenic

(B) Holandric

(D) Pleiotropic

Ans. D

111. Which technique would be used to amplify viral RNA in a patient’s blood specimen?

(A) Antisense engineering

(B) Transcription-mediated amplification

(D) Traditional PCR

Ans. B

112. Which of the following would be used to study which genes are transcribed in a particular cell line

(A) Transcription mediate amplification

(B) Microarray comparative genomic hybridization

(D) Gene expression profiling

Ans. B

113. Which of the following is an example of site-specific recombination

(A) Insertion of a transposon into a new site in a genome

(B) Integration of bacteriophage λ genome into the E. coli chromosome

(D) Crossing-over during meiosis

Ans. B

114. Which of the following events could lead to the evolution of a new gene that contains exons from two or more other genes

(A) Domain duplication

(B) Gene conversion

(D) Gene duplication

Ans. C

115. Which of the followings does NOT need a primer in order to function?

(A) DNA Pol I

(B) DNA Pol III

(D) RNA polymerase

Ans. D

116. The only nucleoside with base to sugar C-C linkage is ________

(A) Thymidine

(B) Cytidine

(D) Adenosine

Ans. C

117. Repressor molecules bind to the

(A) Promoter

(B) Operator

(D) Hormone response element

Ans. B

118. Which of the following enzyme(s) can remove or insert supercoil twists into circular DNA

(A) Topoisomerases

(B) Spliceosomes

(D) Helicase

Ans. A

119. Which of the following m RNAs lack poly A tail

(A) Ferritin

(B) Insulin

(D) None of the above

Ans. C

120. In protein synthesis which out of the following is a termination Codon?

(A) UAU

(B) UGA

(D) UGG

Ans. B

121. All are true for DNA polymerase except one

(A) Has exonuclease activity

(B) Edits as it synthesizes

(D) Synthesizes RNA primer to initiate DNA synthesis.

Ans. D

122. BRCA-1 is associated with which cancer

(A) Breast

(B) Thyroid

(D) Leukemia

Ans. A

123. Preserving germplasm in frozen state is ________

(A) Cryopreservation

(B) In situ preservation

(D) Vernalisation

Ans. C

124. The study of all the proteins coded by the genome is called _______

(A) Proteome

(B) Genome

(D) Protein formation

Ans. C

125. How are so many different antibodies produced from fewer than 300 major genes?

(A) Recombination, Deletions, and Random assortment of DNA segments

(B) Alternative splicing mechanisms

(D) Gene duplication

Ans. A

126. Most common cellulose fermenters in nature are the member of ________

(A) Clostridium

(B) Azotobacter

(D) Fusarium

Ans. D

127. Which organism prefer dry condition

(A) Actinomycetes

(B) Fungi

(D) Protozoa

Ans. C

128. Who discovered the microscope?

(A) Louis Pasteur

(B) John Needham

(D) Francesco Reddy

Ans. C

129. ______ finally disproved the spontaneous generation theory

(A) Louis Pasteur

(B) John Needham

(D) Francesco Reddy

Ans. D

130. ______ is absent in prokaryotes

(A) Capsule

(B) Plasma membrane

(D) Endoplasmic reticulum

Ans. D

131. Serial dilution technique was introduced by ______

(A) Jhoseph Lister

(B) Francesco Reddy

(D) John Needham

Ans. A

132. Autoclaving is usually done at 15 lb per sq inch for 30 min at

(A) 72°C

(B) 101°C

(D) 121°C

Ans. D

133. Who is known as father of vaccination?

(A) Alexander Fleming

(B) Edward Jenner

(D) Louis Pasteur

Ans. B

134. The process of gram staining is given by ______

(A) Karl Landsteiner

(B) Christian Gram

(D) Burril

Ans. B

135. Which are the fixative used in staining

(A) Heat

(B) Mercurous chloride

(D) All of the above

Ans. D

136. Microscope was invented by _______

(A) Robert Koch

(B) Leeuwenhock

(D) Richard Petri

Ans. B

137. Moderate temperature loving bacteria is comes under

(A) Themophillic

(B) Mesophillic

(D) Hyper thcrmophillic

Ans. B

138. Gram staining is an example of ______

(A) Simple staining

(B) Differential staining

(D) All of the above

Ans. B

139. Agar agar was discovered by ______

(A) Robert Koch

(B) Leeuwenhoek

(D) Fannie Hesse

Ans. D

140. Actinomycetes are ______

(A) Gram -ve, aerobic

(B) Gram -ve, anaerobic

(D) Gram +ve, anaerobic

Ans. C

141. First plant parasitic bacteria was reported by ______

(A) T.J. Burril

(B) John Needham

(D) Christian Gram

Ans. A

142. Rhizohium japonicum, a bio-fertilizer is used for ______

(A) Pea

(B) Alfa alfa

(D) Clover

Ans. C

143. Indicator of air pollution

(A) Actinomycetes

(B) Lichen

(D) Asparagus

Ans. B

144. Vitamin B₂ is produced by ________

(A) Aspergillus niger

(B) Penicillium notatum

(D) Eremothecium gossypii (Ashbya gossypii)

Ans. A

145. Highest multiplication rate of microorganism in which phase

(A) Lag phase

(B) Log phase

(D) All of the above

Ans. B

146. Who developed the method of sterilization called “hermatic sealing”

(A) Robret Koch

(B) Leeuwenhoek

(D) Richard Petri

Ans. C

147. Who discovered that fungi produce antibiotic

(A) Robret Koch

(B) Leeuwenhoek

(D) Fleming

Ans. D

148. Coined the term bacterium

(A) Christian Gottfried

(B) Leeuwenhoek Ehrenberg

(D) Richard Petri

Ans. A

149. Germ theory of disease was given by ______

(A) Lazzaro Spallazani

(B) Richard Petri

(D) Leeuwenhoek

Ans. C

150. The enzyme involve in the degradation of protein in to peptides is ________

(A) Peptidase

(B) Alanine

(D) Protease

Ans. A

151. The percentage of cetane in the mixture of cetane and alphamethyl naphthalene is called _______

(A) Octane number

(B) Cetane number

(D) All of the above

Ans. B

152. API degree is given by ______

(A) 141.5/Specific gravity of oil at 60°F – 131.5

(B) 141.5/Specific gravity of oil at 60°F – 13.15

(D) 141.5/Specific gravity of oil at 60°F – 0.131

153. Turbocharger is run by _________

(A) Crankshaft

(B) Exhaust gases

(D) All of the above

Ans. B

154. Supercharger is run by _________

(A) Crankshaft

(B) Exhaust gases

(D) All of the above

Ans. A

155. Device used to control the speed of engine within specified limit is called ________

(A) Turbocharger

(B) Choke

(D) Governor

Ans. D

156. Which type of governor is used on tractor engine?

(A) 10 kmph speed governor

(B) 15 kmph speed governor

(D) Variable speed governor

Ans. D

157. In governing system governor regulation is given by ______

Ans. A

158. Governor hunting sign is associated to ________

(A) Periodic effect on engine speed

(B) Sudden stop of engine

(D) All of the above

Ans. D

159. At full load condition, the variation in speed of engine at full load conditions, should be ________

(A) 200 rpm

(B) 300 rpm

(D) 500 rpm

Ans. C

160. An ignition coil can step up the voltage from __________

(A) 6 to 20000 voltage

(B) 1200 to 2000 volts

(D) 40 to 240 volts

Ans. A

161. Volatility of fuel affects the _________

(A) Ease of start of engine

(B) Fuels calorific value

(D) Both B and C

Ans. A

162. Fully charged battery having specific gravity

(A) 1.225

(B) 1.280

(D) 1.150

Ans. B

163. Battery need to charge, when specific gravity falls below

(A) < 1.225

(B) 1.280

(D) 1.150

Ans. A

164. Spark plug gap setting is kept between

(A) 0.8 to 1.0 mm

(B) 10 to 14 mm

(D) 0.50 to 0.85 mm

Ans. D

165. Lubricant’s viscosity is measured by _________

(A) Hydrometer

(B) Hygrometer

(D) All of the above

Ans. C

166. The minimum temperature at which oil just start to flow is called _________

(A) Pour point

(B) Cloud point

(D) Fire point

Ans. A

167. Which type of governor is used on tractor engine?

(A) 10 kmph speed governor

(B) 15 kmph speed governor

(D) Variable speed governor

Ans. D

168. The recommended pressure of lubricating oil in tractor engine is about _________

(A) 150 kg/cm²

(B) 3 kg/cm²

(D) 275 kg/cm²

Ans. B

169. The three classes of oil for diesel engine are _________

(A) ML, MM and MS

(B) DG, DM and DS

(D) All of the above

Ans. A

170. Device which is used to ignite the air fuel mixture inside the cylinder is _________

(A) Carburetor

(B) Heat of compression

(D) Spark Plug

Ans. D

171. Cold spark plug dissipates the heat

(A) At 10 sec.

(B) Quickly

(D) At 5 sec.

Ans. A

172. A hot spark plug dissipates the heat

(A) At 10 sec.

(B) Quickly

(D) At 5 sec.

Ans. C

173. In lead-acid battery the level of electrolyte above top edge of plates should be _____

(A) 5 mm

(B) 12 to 14 mm

(D) 12 to 14 cm

Ans. B

174. A chemically correct air-fuel mixture for engine is about

(A) 15:1

(B) 4:1

(D) 22:1

Ans. A

175. Melting point of aluminium is about:

(A) 678°C

(B) 1150°C

(D) 550°C

Ans. A

176. The discharge over a V-notch is proportional to ________

(A) H^3/2

(B) H^–3/2

(D) H^1/2

Ans. C

177. The normal range in specific speed encountered in single suction impeller design is _________

(A) 10-300

(B) 300-500

(D) None of the above

Ans. A

178. Blinding of tiles refers to ________

(A) Trenching the drain

(B) Laying the tiles

(D) Covering the tiles with loose earth

Ans. D

179. Pressure plate apparatus is used for measurement of soil moisture tension up to

(A) 15 bar

(B) 50 bar

(D) 100 bar

Ans. A

180. Water horse power formula is given by _________

(A) (Discharge x Head)/75

(B) SHP/WHP

(D) All of the above

Ans. A

181. Practically the suction lift of a centrifugal pump is _______

(A) < 1 atmo

(B) < 2 atmo

(D) = 2 atmo

Ans. A

182. Subsurface drains removes

(A) Excess surface water

(B) Capillary sub-surface water

(D) Excess runoff water from rainfall

Ans. C

183. The centrifugal pumps are used for pumping water when

(A) Both head and discharge are high

(B) Both discharge and head are low

(D) Discharge is low head is high

Ans. D

184. Centrifugal force is involved in the generation of pressure in _________

(A) Axial flow pump

(B) Radial flow pump

(D) Reciprocating pump

Ans. B

185. Specific speed is generally stated for _________

(A) Maximum efficiency

(B) Minimum efficiency

(D) None of the above

Ans. A

186. For a given head and capacity, a pump having larger specific speed will be ________

(A) Smaller and cheaper

(B) Smaller and costly

(D) Larger and cheaper

Ans. A

187. If the speed of centrifugal pump is doubled, the power required will be increased by ________

(A) 2 times

(B) 4 times

(D) 8 times

Ans. D

188. Sprinkler irrigation is recommended in _________

(A) Highly undulating area

(B) Soils having high infiltration rate

(D) In all the above situation

Ans. D

189. Isohyets are _________

(A) Lines of equal temperature on map

(B) Lines of equal Precipitation on map

(D) None of the above

Ans. B

190. The soil property for good water yield is _______

(A) Porosity

(B) Effective size > 0.1 mm

(D) Uniformity coefficient < 2

Ans. A

191. In a radial centrifugal pump, the inlet angle will be designed to have __________

(A) Relative velocity vector in radial direction

(B) Absolute velocity vector in radial direction

(D) All of the above

Ans. A

192. Soil erosion more in _________

(A) Sandy soils

(B) Silty soils

(D) Steady jump

Ans. A

193. Which impeller has a no shroud?

(A) Closed impeller

(B) Semi-open impeller

(D) Non clog impeller

Ans. C

194. Maize is ________

(A) Soil depleting crop

(B) Soil maintaining crop

(D) None of above

Ans. A

195. The following method of surface drainage is most suited to soils that need the combination of surface and subsurface drainage

(A) Parallel open ditch system

(B) Random field ditch system

(D) Bedding system

Ans. C

196. Penman method is used to compute

(A) Consumptive use of crop

(B) Potential ET of crop

(D) Irrigation requirement of crop

Ans. B

197. Sub-irrigation is useful in a situation

(A) Saline water is used for irrigation

(B) Soil is heavy clay to permit high capillary rise

(D) No hard pan is present below the root zone

Ans. C

198. At field capacity soil moisture tension of sandy soil is approximately equal to ______

(A) 0.1 bar

(B) 1.0 bar

(D) 15 bar

Ans. A

199. The brake horse power of centrifugal pump varies directly

(A) As the speed of impeller

(B) As the square of speed of impeller

(D) As the fourth power of speed of impeller

Ans. C

200. Soil detachability increases as the ________

(A) Size of particle reduce

(B) Impact angle of raindrop reduce

(D) Length of slope reduce

Ans. A