Objective questions and answers on Indian agriculture highly useful for cracking Pre PG (Ag) Test, JRF, SRS, ARS, NET, SET, Ph.D, ASRB, IRMA, UPSC, NARBARD, Cooperative Bank, P.O, BEd. MANAGE and allied Agricultural Exam!
1. Which of the following is not a part of classification based upon the instrument employed?
(a) Chain Surveys
(b) Theodolite Surveys
(c) Tachometric Surveys
(d) Geodetic surveying
Ans: a
2. Which of the following is not a part of classification based upon the instrument employed?
(a) Compass surveys
(b) Plane table surveys
(c) Photographic and aerial surveys
(d) Triangulation surveys
Ans: d
3. Which of the following is not a part of Instruments used for measuring distances in chain survey?
(a) Chain
(b) Tape
(c) Optical Square
Ans: c
4. Which of the following is not a part of Instruments used for marking survey stations in chain survey?
(a) Ranging rod
(b) Offset rod
(c) Laths and whites
(d) Pegs
(e) Cross staff
Ans: e
5. Spacing between terraces depends on
(a) Slope of the lands
(b) Depth of soils
(c) Cost involved
(d) All of the above
Ans: d
6. Lateral grade is provided in terrace for the purpose of
(a) Quick disposal of excess runoff
(b) Easy movement of machinery
(c) To store runoff at one end of terrace
(d) To increase volume of runoff
Ans: a
7. The dolite is an instrument used to measure
(a) Light intensity
(b) Distance of an object
(c) Water level in stream
(d) Dimension of an engineering structure
Ans: b
8. Closely spaced contours indicates
(a) Flat area
(b) Water logged area
(c) Steep slopes
(d) Higher elevation
Ans: c
9. Widely spaced contour lines indicates
(a) Flat area
(b) Water logged area
(c) Steep slopes
(d) Higher elevation
Ans: a
10. NRAA stands for
(a) National Rational Agricultural Agency
(b) National Rainfed Area Authority
(c) National Rotational Agricultural Authority
(d) National Rainfed Agricultural Agency
Ans: b
11. Function of NRAA is
(a) Executing body watershed programme
(b) Advisory in nature
(c) Centralized funding agency for watershed programme
(d) Managing water resources
Ans: b
12. NWDPRA stands for
(a) National Watershed Development Programme for Rain fed Areas
(b) National Watershed Development Programme for Rural Areas
(c) National Watershed Development Project for Rural Areas
(d) National Watershed Departmental Programme for Rain fed Areas
Ans: a
13. In watershed development activity, find the correct sequence of activities 1. Execution, 2. Planning, 3.Mid-term correction, 4. Impact evaluation
(a) 1,23,4
(b) 2,1,3,4
(c) 3,4,2,1
(d) 4,2,3,1
Ans: b
14. Waste weirs are provided in contour bunds for
(a) Higher strength to structure
(b) Higher storage of runoff
(c) Safe disposal of excess runoff
(d) For irrigation to the down filed
Ans: c
15. Marginal land between gully rim and table land with slope of 0-15% at within 6 m distance from gully rim is classified as
(a) Class I
(b) Class III
(c) Class IV
(d) Class VI
Ans: d
16. In land capability classification, soil depth is determined by means of
(a) Screw auger
(b) Roadside cuts
(c) Gully depth
(d) Any of the above
Ans: d
17. Soil texture for land capability classification is determined in field by
(a) Feel method
(b) Study of clay mineralogy
(c) Compaction test
(d) Indirectly through Munshell color chart
Ans: a
18. Which of the following instrument is used in slope measurement?
(a) Hand level
(b) Abney’s level
(c) Thedolite
(d) All
Ans: d
19. Which of the following factor is favorable for high runoff producing?
(a) Low drainage density
(b) Higher slope
(c) Coarse soil texture
(d) Low intensity of rainfall
Ans: b
20. Which of the following land use is less erosion permitting?
(a) Maize
(b) Close growing grasses
(c) Pearl millet
(d) Barren cultivated land
Ans: b
21. Planning Commission (1989) has divided India into 15 major agro-climatic regions delineated on the basis of a commonality of which of the following agro-climatic factors
(a) Soil type
(b) Rainfall
(c) Temperature
(d) All the above
Ans. (d)
22. Which of the following is not among the 15 agro-climatic regions given by Planning Commission (1989)
(a) Lower Gangetic plain region
(b) North east Gangetic plain region
(c) Upper Gangetic plain region
(d) Trans-Gangetic plain region
Ans. (b)
23. Which of the following is not among the 15 agro-climatic regions given by Planning Commission (1989)
(a) Southern plateau and hill region
(b) East coast plain and hill region
(c) West coast plain and hill region
(d) North plain and hill region
Ans. (d)
24. Climatic divisions of India based on Heat Index and moisture supply are
(a) Semi-arid, Sub-humid and humid
(b) Sub-humid and humid
(c) Semi-arid and Sub-humid
(d) None of the above
Ans. (a)
25. Arid region based on Heat Index and moisture supply covered the state of
(a) Haryana
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Madhya Pradesh
Ans. (b)
26. Humid region based on Heat Index and moisture supply covered the state of
(a) Northern & Eastern Rajasthan, Gujarat, Marathwada, Mysore, Rayalaseema, Punjab, Delhi, Western U.P.
(b) Central U.P., Western & Central M.P, Vidarbha, Eastern U.P, Bihar, Sub- mountain tracts of U.P., H.P., West Bengal and Nilgiri
(c) Konkan, Kerala, Coastal Madras, Assam, Odisha, West Bengal, Eastern M.P. and coastal Andhra Pradesh
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
27. INFOCROP, models used to predict climate change impacts on agriculture is a
(a) Simple sugarcane growth model, was developed by IARI to measure effects on cane yield
(b) A generic growth model for various crops, developed by IARI for optimal resource and agronomic management options
(c) Simple tea and coconut models developed for tropical India
(d) None of the above
Ans. (b)
28. INFOCANE, models used to predict climate change impacts on agriculture is a
(a) A generic growth model for various crops, developed by IARI for optimal resource and agronomic management options
(b) A simple sugarcane growth model, was developed by IARI to measure effects on cane yield
(c) Simple tea and coconut models developed for tropical India
(d) None of the above
Ans. (b)
29. Climate change impacts on agriculture and livelihoods can
(a) Decrease the number of climate refugees
(b) Increase the number of climate refugees
(c) No effect
(d) None of the above
Ans. (b)
30. Which of the following is correct about climate change impacts on agriculture?
(a) Increases in temperature (by about 2°C) reduced potential grain yields of wheat in most places.
(b) Climate change is also predicted to lead to boundary changes in areas suitable for growing certain crops.
(c) Overall, temperature increases are predicted to reduce rice yields
(d) All the above
Ans. (d)
31. Global warming is projected to have significant impacts on conditions affecting
(a) Agriculture
(b) Temperature
(c) Carbon dioxide
(d) All the above
Ans. (d)
32. Rice demands
(a) Temperature of around 15 degree Celsius and above and rainfall of more than 100 cm
(b) Temperature of around 25 degree Celsius and above and rainfall of more than 100 cm
(c) Temperature of around 35 degree Celsius and above and rainfall of more than 50 cm
(d) Temperature of around 5 degree Celsius and above and rainfall of more than 90 cm
Ans. (b)
33. Rice is the staple food of__________ parts of India
(a) Eastern and southern
(b) Northern
(c) Western
(d) Southern and western
Ans. (a)
34. In India, rapeseed-mustard (Brassica spp.) contributes__________ in the total production of oilseeds
(a) 28.6%
(b) 15%
(c) 3%
(d) 9%
Ans. (a)
35. Indian mustard is reported to tolerate annual precipitation of
(a) 3500 to 4200 mm
(b) 2500 to 4200 mm
(c) 500 to 4200 mm
(d) 1500 to 4200 mm
Ans. (c)
36. Indian mustard is reported to tolerate annual temperature of
(a) 16 to 27°C
(b) 25 to 27°C
(c) 20 to 27°C
(d) 6 to 27°C
Ans. (b)
37. Indian mustard is reported to tolerate pH of
(a) 6.3 to 8.3
(b) 4.3 to 8.3
(c) 5.3 to 8.3
(d) 1.3 to 8.3
Ans. (b)
38. Mustard has efficient photosynthetic response at
(a) 15-20°C temperature
(b) 25-30°C temperature
(c) 10-20°C temperature
(d) 22-28°C temperature
Ans. (a)
39. Which of the following is correct justification about Principle of care of organic agriculture?
a) Organic Agriculture should be managed in a precautionary and responsible manner to protect the health and well- being of current and future generations and the environment.
b) Organic Agriculture should build on relationships that ensure fairness with regard to the common environment and life opportunities
c) This principle roots organic agriculture within living ecological systems. It states that production is to be based on ecological processes, and recycling.
d) Organic Agriculture should sustain and enhance the health of soil, plant, animal, human and planet as one and indivisible.
Ans. (a)
40. Which of the following is not the approach involves Organic farming principles?
a) Management of the entire surrounding system to ensure biodiversity and sustainability of the system
b) Crop production with the use of alternative sources of nutrients such as crop rotation, residue management, organic manures and biological inputs
c) Conversion of land from organic management to conventional management
d) Management of weeds and pests by better management practices, physical and cultural means and by biological control system
Ans. (c)
41. Which of the following is/are the approaches involved in Organic farming principles?
a) Management of weeds and pests by better management practices, physical and cultural means and by biological control system
b) Maintenance of livestock in tandem with organic concept and make them an integral part of the entire system
c) Conversion of land from conventional management to organic management
d) All the above
Ans. (d)
42. Select Organic Methods for Leaf eating caterpillars and borers type Vegetable pests and Disease Management
a) Use of Neem Kernel extracts 500 to 2000 ml per tank (10 litres capacity)
b) Use of Garlic, Chilli, Ginger extract 500 to 1000 ml per tank (10 litres capacity)
c) Use of Andrographis paniculata (siriyanangai) decoction 3 to 5 % or Sida spinosa (Arivalmani Poondu) decoction 5 %
d) All the above
Ans. (d)
43. Select Organic Methods for Sucking borers type Vegetable pests and Disease Management
a) Use of Neem Kernel extracts 500 to 2000 ml per tank (10 litres capacity)
b) Use of Garlic, Chilli, Ginger extract 500 to 1000 ml per tank (10 litres capacity)
c) Use of Andrographis paniculata (siriyanangai) decoction 3 to 5 % or Sida spinosa (Arivalmani Poondu) decoction 5 %
d) All the above
Ans. (d)
44.Organic and conventional agriculture belonged to two different paradigms, the fundamental difference between the two competing agricultural paradigms is that organic agriculture has characteristic of
a) Centralization
b) Dependence
c) Decentralization
d) Domination of nature
Ans. (c)
45. Two dominant nonallelic genes are 50 map units apart. The linkage is
a) cis type
b) trans type
c) complete
d) absent/incomplete.
Ans. (d)
46. Of a normal couple, half the sons are haemophiliac while half the daughters are carriers. The gene is located on
a) X-chromosome of father
b) Y-chromosome of father
c) One X-chromosome of mother
d) Both the X-chromosomes of mother.
Ans. (c)
47. Which of the following is suitable for experiment on linkage?
a) aaBB x aaBB
b) AABB x aabb
c) AaBb x AaBb
d) AAbb x AaBB.
Ans. (b)
48. A person has Bb autosomal gene pair and d allele sex-linked. What shall be proportion of Bd in sperms?
a) zero
b) 1/2
c) 1/4
d) 1/8.
Ans. (c)
49. Of both normal parents, the chances of a male child becoming colour blind are
a) None
b) possible only when all the four grand parents had normal vision
c) possible only when father’s mother was colour blind
d) possible only when mother’s father was colour blind.
Ans. (d)
50. The phenomenon, in which an allele of one gene suppresses the activity of an allele of another gene, is known as
a) epistasis
b) dominance
c) suppression
d) transcription
Ans. (a)
51. Uttar Pradesh can be divided into _________ distinct hypsographical regions
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Ans. (c)
52. Which of the following is the name of hypsographical regions of Uttar Pradesh
a) The Himalayan region in the north
b) The Gangetic Plain in the centre
c) The Vindhya Hills and plateau in the south
d) All the above
Ans. (d)
53. Soil of middle plain area of Uttar Pradesh is
a) Khaddar or jalodh soil
b) Bungar or old jalodh soil
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
54.Salty and basic soil is found in which of the following district of Uttar Pradesh?
a) Aligarh
b) Kanpur
c) Etawa
d) All the above
Ans. (d)
55. Which of the following district of Uttar Pradesh have Red soil?
a) Southern Allahabad
b) Jhansi
c) Jalaun
d) All the above
Ans. (d)
56. Which of the following area of Uttar Pradesh is most affected by air erosion
a) Western Uttar Pradesh
b) Northern Uttar Pradesh
c) Eastern Uttar Pradesh
d) Southern Uttar Pradesh
Ans. (a)
57. Red, parwa, marr, rakar and bhonta soils are located in
a) Bundelkhand region
b) Ruhelkhand region
c) Meerut region
d) Gangetic region
Ans. (a)
58. Dormancy in seeds and buds can be broken by application of which plant hormone?
a) Abscisic acid
b) Auxin
c) Cytokinin
d) Gibberellin
Ans. (d)
59. A hormone that causes cell division and is found in coconut milk or in dividing root tissue is
a) Abscisic acid
b) Auxin
c) Cytokinin
d) Ethylene
Ans. (c)
60. Which of the following is/are an effect(s) of auxin?
a) Applied to a woody cutting, it causes roots to develop.
b) Auxin production by seeds promotes the growth of fruit.
c) Trees sprayed with auxin will keep mature fruit from falling to the ground.
d) All of the above are correct
Ans. (d)
61. How does auxin actually work?
a) In the presence of blue light, it triggers additional photosynthesis and growth.
b) In the presence of light, it increases the turgor pressure of the cell and accelerates growth.
c) In the presence of light, it increases the formation of hydrolytic enzymes that release energy needed for growth purposes.
d) In the presence of unidirectional light, it moves to the shady side and activates an ATP-driven proton pump that results in weakened cell walls and eventual elongation.
Ans. (d)
62. How does gibberellin actually work?
a) In the presence of blue light, it triggers additional photosynthesis and growth.
b) In the presence of light, it increases the turgor pressure of the cell and accelerates growth.
c) In the presence of light, it increases the formation of additional DNA that codes for additional plant structures.
d) It attaches to a plasma membrane receptor and results in gene activation to produce the enzyme amylase that releases sugars for additional cell growth, division, and elongation.
Ans. (d)
63. A chemical messenger from the embryo that apparently stimulates a seed to digest the endosperm is
a) abscisic acid
b) auxin
c) cytokinin
d) gibberellin.
Ans. (d)
64. Application of which hormone prevents plant tissues from senescing, or aging?
a) Abscisic acid
b) Auxin
c) Cytokinin
d) Ethylene
Ans. (c)
65. Which plant hormone is a gas?
a) Abscisic acid
b) Auxin
c) Cytokinin
d) Ethylene
Ans. (d)
66. Which plant hormone stimulates the ripening of fruit and inhibits plant growth?
a) Abscisic acid
b) Auxin
c) Cytokinin
d) Ethylene
Ans. (d)
67. Caterpillar which affects coconut is
a) Calendar oryza
b) Prodenia litura
c) Nephantis serenopa
d) Pectinophora gossypiella
Ans. (c)
68. Sericulture means
a) Rearing of Honey bees
b) Rearing of Silk worms
c) Both of these
d) None of these
Ans. (b)
69. Establishment of new crop naturally or artificially is termed as :
a) Silviculture
b) Sericulture
c) Nursery
d) None of these
Ans. (a)
70. Olericulture is the study dealing with:
a) Silk worm
b) Vegetable production
c) Honey bees
d) Ornamental flowers
Ans. (b)
71. Which of the following is not used as a smoker fuel?
a) Hessian
b) Turine
c) Burlap
d) Diesel Oil
Ans. (d)
72. What is the meaning of supersedure?
a) Queen replacement within one hive without swarming
b) Collection of the queen by destroying the hive
c) Replacement of drones by fresh ones
d) Killing of bees due to fungal disease
Ans. (a)
73. What is the scientific term used to call a beekeeper?
a) Florist
b) Horticulturist
c) Apiarist
d) Botanist
Ans. (c)
74. What is bee dance or waggle?
a) To show off before mating
b) To fight for territory
c) To communicate with each other
d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
75. The carbohydrate of the blood group substances is
a) Mannitol
b) Fucose
c) Arabinose
d) Raffinose
Ans. (b)
76. Erythromycin contains
a) Dimethyl amino sugar
b) Trimethyl amino sugar
c) Nepthol and methane
d) Starch and Glycogen
Ans. (a)
77. A sugar alcohol is
a) Mannitol
b) Trehalose
c) Xylulose
d) Arabinose
Ans. (a)
78. The major sugar of insect hemolymph is
a) Glycogen
b) Fructose
c) Trehalose
d) Raffinose
Ans. (c)
79. The sugar found in DNA is
a) Glucose
b) Fructose
c) Deoxyribose
d) Ribulose
Ans. (c)
80. The sugar found in RNA is
a) Ribose
b) Deoxyribose
c) Ribulose
d) Erythrose
Ans. (a)
81. Deficiency of thiamine causes
a) Beri beri
b) Nausea
c) Night blindness
d) Anaemia
Ans. (a)
82. Deficiency of Vitamin D leads to
a) Rickets
b) Osteomalacia
c) Xeropthalmia
d) Both a) and b)
Ans. (d)
83. The vitamin that is useful in cancer is
a) A
b) Thiamine
c) C
d) D
Ans. (a)
84. Vitamin A over dosage causes injury to
a) Mitochondria
b) Nucleus
c) Lysosomes
d) Golgi body
Ans. (c)
85. Which is a pro vitamin or vitamin that has antioxidant properties?
a) Vitamin A
b) Vitamin E
c) Vitamin B
d) Vitamin D
Ans. (b)
86. The vitamin required for carboxylation reaction is
a) Vitamin B2
b) Vitamin B6
c) Biotin
d) Vitamin B12
Ans. (c)
87. Biological activity of tocopherols has been attributed in part to their action as
a) Antioxidant
b) Anticoagulents
c) Provitamin
d) Carriers in electron transport system
Ans. (b)
88. Biotin is essential for
a) Photosynthesis
b) Carboxylation
c) Hydroxylation
d) Deamination
Ans. (b)
89. Which of the following vitamin act as a respiratory catalyst?
a) B2
b) Pyridoxine
c) E
d) D
Ans. (a)
90. Which metal is found in Vitamin B12?
a) Copper
b) Cobalt
c) Aluminium
d) Mercury
Ans. (b)
91. Insignificant amount of Vitamin E is present in
a) Mustard oil
b) Coconut oil
c) Safflower seed oil
d) Fish liver oil
Ans. (d)
92. The activity of tocopherols is destroyed by
a) Commercial cooking
b) Reduction
c) Conjugation
d) All of these
Ans. (a)
93. The requirement of vitamin E is increased with greater intake of
a) Carbohydrates
b) Glycerol
c) Polyunsaturated fat
d) Lipid
Ans. (c)
94. Vitamin E reduces the requirement of
a) Calcium
b) Sodium
c) Selenium
d) Magnesium
Ans. (c)
95. The most important natural antioxidant is
a) Vitamin D
b) Vitamin B
c) Vitamin C
d) Vitamin A
Ans. (b)
96. Mitochondrial membrane is freely preamble to
a) Isomerase
b) Malate
c) Oxaloacetate
d) Lipoprotein lipase
Ans. (b)
97.Which of the following coenzyme is not involved in the formation of acetyl-CoA from pyruvate?
a) TPP
b) Biotin
c) NADP
d) FAD
Ans. (b)
98. A carrier molecule in the citric acid cycle is
a) Acetyl-CoA
b) Lactate
c) Oxaloacetate
d) Phosphate
Ans. (c)
99. A specific inhibitor for succinate dehydrogenase is
a) Arsenine
b) Arsenite
c) Maltose
d) Chloride
Ans. (b)
100. Which of the following alloseteric enzyme controls the rate of citric acid cycle?
a) Aconitase
b) Amylase
c) Fumarase
d) Malate dehydrogenase
Ans. (c)
101. In the erythrocytes, the net production of ATP molecules by the Rapport – Leubering pathway is
a) 0
b) 5
c) 7
d) 8
Ans. (a)
102. The ratio that most closely approximates the number of net molecules of ATP formed per mole of glucose utilized under aerobic conditions to the net number formed under anaerobic conditions is
a) 14 : 11
b) 13 : 1
c) 18 : 1
d) 24 : 1
Ans. (c)
103. The pathway of glycogen biosynthesis involves a special nucleotide of glucose. In the reaction below, NuDP stands for NuDP Glucose + glycogenn, NuDP + glycogen n+1
a) ADP
b) GTP
c) UDP
d) CTP
Ans. (c)
104. Glucose 6 – phosphate is converted to glucose 1 – phosphate in a reaction catalysed by the enzyme phosphoglucomutase, which is
a) Phosphorylated
b) Dephosphorylated
c) Phosphorylated – dephosphorylated
d) Phosphorylated – dephosphorylated – rephosphorylated
Ans. (d)
105. The glycogen content of the liver is upto
a) 6%
b) 60%
c) 20%
d) 12%
Ans. (a)