Multiple choice questions on Agriculture highly useful for cracking Pre PG (Ag) Test, JRF, SRS, ARS, NET, SET, Ph.D, ASRB, IRMA, UPSC, NARBARD, Cooperative Bank, P.O, BEd. MANAGE and allied Agricultural Exams!

1. Shelling percentage of wheat is.

(a) 30%

(b) 40%

(c) 50%

(d) 60%

Ans. (d)

2. Temperature for germination of wheat seed is.

(a) 10-15°C

(b) 20-25°C

(c) 30-35°C

(d) 40-45°C

Ans. (b)

3. Which of the following is / are the advantage of agroforestry?

a) Better control of cultivated areas of land by substituting for arable plots, the agroforestry plots contributes to diminishing the cultivated area of land.

b) Agroforestry plots have a truly innovative landscaping potential, and would improve the public image of farmers to society thus it will be particularly the case in very sparsely wooded areas, where plots are developed by planting arable land, and in very heavily wooded areas, where plots are developed by thinning the existing forest.

c) Protection of soil and water, in particular in sensitive areas

d) All the above

Ans. (d)

4. Which of the following is correct about Farm Forestry?

a) It is the name given to programmes which promote commercial tree growing by farmers on their own land.

b) This type of forestry is also known as Aesthetic forestry which is defined as the practice of forestry with the object of developing or maintaining a forest of high scenic value

c) It is the practice of forestry for raising fodder grass with scattered fodder trees, fruit trees and fuel wood trees on suitable wastelands, panchayat lands and village commons

d) It is the practice of forestry with the object of raising flowering trees and shrubs mainly to serve as recreation forests for the urban and rural population

Ans. (a)

5. Which one of the following is also known as Spray gun?

a) Nozzle

b) Lance

c) Nozzle disc

d) Trigger

Ans. (b)

6. Rocker sprayer is used for spraying:

a) Small crops

b) Tall crops

c) Godown & factories

d) All are correct

Ans. (d)

7. What is the volumetric efficiency of piston pump?

a) 10%

b) 50%

c) 40%

d) 90%

Ans. (d)

8. Crop water need (mm/total growing period) for Sugarcane crop is

a) 400-600

b) 750-1000

c) 1500-2500

d) 550-700

Ans. (c)

9. Level of sensitivity to drought in Banana Crop is

a) low-medium

b) high

c) medium

d) medium-high

Ans. (b)

10. Level of sensitivity to drought in Tomato Crop is

a) low-medium

b) high

c) medium

d) medium-high

Ans. (d)

11. Level of sensitivity to drought in Sugarbeet Crop is

a) low-medium

b) high

c) medium

d) medium-high

Ans. (a)

12. Level of sensitivity to drought in Sorghum/ Millet Crop is

a) low-medium

b) Low

c) medium

d) medium-high

Ans. (b)

13. Level of sensitivity to drought in Cabbage Crop is

a) low-medium

b) high

c) medium

d) medium-high

Ans. (d)

14. Water Requirements of Maize Crops in Surface Irrigation Methods is

a) Average water requirement 400 (mm), 6-7 Interval (days)

b) Average water requirement 500 (mm), 10-15 Interval (days)

c) Average water requirement 700 (mm), 6-7 Interval (days)

d) Average water requirement 100 (mm), 15-20 Interval (days)

Ans. (a)

15. Which of the following is not a macronutrient?

a) Mg++

b) Cu++

c) Fe++

d) P++

Ans. (b)

16. Which element forms part of structure of the chlorophyll molecule?

a) Cu

b) Mg

c) Zn

d) Co

Ans. (b)

17. Which of the following is not a trace element

a) Cu

b) Fe

c) Mn

d) Zn

Ans. (b)

18. Which of the following is a micronutrient

a) Mn

b) K

c) Ca

d) Mn

Ans. (d)

19. Which of the following element is a component of the middle lamella in plant cells?

a) Chlorine

b) Calcium

c) Manganese

d) Iron

Ans. (b)

20. Which one of the following elements in not needed by plant for the normal healthy growth

a) Magnesium

b) Mercury

c) Iron

d) Calcium

Ans. (b)

21. The sugar found in milk is

a) Maltose

b) Raffinose

c) Fructose

d) Lactose

Ans. (d)

22. Invert sugar is

a) Glucose

b) Fructose

c) Hydrolytic products of sucrose

d) Fructose

Ans. (c)

23. Sucrose consists of

a) Maltose + arabinose

b) Glucose + fructose

c) Glucose + galactose

d) Glucose + mannose

Ans. (b)

24. The polysaccharide used in assessing the glomerular fittration rate (GFR) is

a) Fructose

b) Starch

c) Inulin

d) Hyaluronic acid

Ans. (c)

25. The constituent unit of inulin is

a) Glucose

b) Fructose

c) Raffinose

d) Maltose

Ans. (b)

26. The polysaccharide found in the exoskeleton of invertebrates is

a) Zeatin

b) Chitin

c) Fructose

d) Chondroitin sulphate

Ans. (b)

27. A polymer of glucose synthesized by the action of leuconostoc mesenteroids in a sucrose medium is

a) Dextrans

b) Glucagen

c) Limit dextrin

d) Inulin

Ans. (a)

28. Glucose on reduction with sodium amalgam forms

a) Raffinose

b) Sorbitol

c) Mannitol

d) Mannitol and sorbitol

Ans. (b)

29. Streptomycin prevents synthesis of polypeptide by

a) Inhibiting initiation process

b) Releasing premature polypeptide

c) Inhibiting peptidyl transferase activity

d) Inhibiting translocation

Ans. (a)

30. Erythromycin acts on ribosomes and inhibit

a) Initiation process

b) Binding of aminoacyl tRNA

c) Peptidyl transferase activity

d) Translocation

Ans. (d)

31. Which antibiotic inhibits the binding of prokaryotic DNA dependent RNA polymerase to promoter sites of genes?

a) Puromycin

b) Rifamycin

c) Terramycin

d) Streptomycin

Ans. (b)

32. Which gene is transcribed during repression?

a) Structural

b) Regulator

c) Promoter

d) Operator

Ans. (b)

33. Which gene of lac operon has constitutive expression?

a) i

b) d

c) p

d) r

Ans. (a)

34. What is the minimum effective size of an operator for lac repressor binding?

a) 30 base pairs

b) 15 base pairs

c) 25 base pairs

d) 17 base pairs

Ans. (d)

35. All the following conditions produce a real or functional deficiency of vitamin K except

a) Prolonged oral, broad spectrum antibiotic therapy

b) Total lack of red meat in the diet

c) The total lack of green leafy vegetables in the diet

d) Being a new born infant

Ans. (b)

36. Vitamin K is found in

a) Green leafy plants

b) Water

c) Fish

d) Milk

Ans. (a)

37. Function of Vitamin A:

a) Healing epithelial tissues

b) Protein synthesis regulation

c) Cell growth

d) All of these

Ans. (d)

38. Vitamin K2 was originally isolated from

a) Soybean

b) Barley

c) Maize

d) Putrid fish meal

Ans. (d)

39. Vitamin synthesized by bacterial in the intestine is

a) A

b) B

c) E

d) K

Ans. (d)

40. Vitamin K is involved in posttranslational modification of the blood clotting factors by acting as cofactor for the enzyme:

a) Carboxylase

b) Decarboxylase

c) Lyase

d) Fumarase

Ans. (a)

41. Vitamin K is a cofactor for

a) Gamma carboxylation of glutamic acid residue

b) Beta – Oxidation of fatty acid

c) Formation of Gama – amino butyrate

d) Synthesis of tryptophan

Ans. (a)

42. Hypervitaminosis K in neonates may cause

a) Porphyria

b) Jaundice

c) Scurvy

d) Anaemia

Ans. (b)

43. Dicoumarol is antagonist to

a) Riboflavin

b) Retinol

c) Menadione

d) Tocopherol

Ans. (c)

44. Which one of the following is not a fat soluble vitamin?

a) Tocopherol

b) Retinol

c) Thiamine

d) Phylloquinone

Ans. (c)

45. The vitamin which would most likely become deficient in an individual who develop a completely carnivorous life style is

a) Vitamin D

b) Riboflavin

c) Vitamin C

d) Cobalamin

Ans. (c)

46. In human body highest concentration of ascorbic acid is found in

a) Liver

b) Adrenal cortex

c) Adrenal medulla

d) Spleen

Ans. (b)

47. The vitamin required for the formation of hydroxyproline (in collagen) is

a) Vitamin C

b) Vitamin B

c) Vitamin K

d) Vitamin E

Ans. (a)

48. The enzyme glucose 6-phosphatase is present in

a) Liver

b) Muscle

c) Adipose tissue

d) Brain

Ans. (a)

49. In gluconeogensis, an allosteric activator required in the synthesis of oxaloacetate from bicarbonate and pyruvate, which fs catalysed by the enzyme pyruvate carboxylase is

a) Acetyl CoA

b) Succinate

c) Reductase

d) Fumerase

Ans. (a)

50. The number of ATP molecules required to convert 2 molecules of lactate into glucose in mammalian liver is

a) 7

b) 10

c) 5

d) 6

Ans. (d)

51. For conjugation with many exogenous and exogenous substances before elimination in urine, the uronic acid pathway provides

a) Active glucuronate

b) Gulonate

c) Xylulose

d) Xylitol

Ans. (a)

52. UDP glucose is converted to UDP glucurronate, a reaction catalysed by UDP glucose dehydrogenase requires

a) NAD+

b) FAD

c) GTP

d) ATP

Ans. (a)

53. Pentosuria is a. rare hereditary disease is characterized by increased urinary excretion of

a) L – xylulose

b) Xylitol

c) Xylulose 5 – phosphate

d) Ribose 5 – phosphate

Ans. (a)

54. The enzyme involved in essential pentosuria is

a) Reductase

b) Hydroxylase

c) Fumerase

d) Gluconate

Ans. (a)

55. Galactose is synthesized from glucose in

a) Mammary gland

b) Intestine

c) Urinary bladder

d) Brain

Ans. (a)

56. Galactose is readily converted to glucose in

a) Liver

b) Intestine

c) Kidney

d) Adipose tissue

Ans. (a)

57. Which of the following is not correctly matched?

a) Mustard – white rust

b) Paddy – brown spot

c) Wheat – red rust

d) Groundnut – tikka

Ans. (c)

58. Tungro disease of rice is spread by:

a) Nephotettix virescens

b) Sogatela furcifera

c) Nilaparvata lugens

d) Thrips tabaci

Ans. (a)

59. Yellow leaf mosaic of bhindi crop is spread by:

a) Jassids

b) Borers

c) Jassid and borers

d) None of these

Ans. (c)

60. ‘Little leaf’ of brinjal is caused by a:

a) Fungus

b) Bacteria

c) Virus

d) Mycoplasma

Ans. (d)

61. The cauliflower mosaic virus particles contain:

a) RNA

b) DNA

c) Both RNA and DNA

d) Either RNA or DNA

Ans. (b)

62. Post Harvest Losses in paddy rice is due to

a) old and outdated method of paddy milling

b) improper and inefficient methods of storage of paddy

c) rice, transport and handling

d) all the above

Ans. (d)

63. Which of the following is / are the priority areas in food processing?

a) Processing of special fruits and nuts like, banana, litchi, mango, pineapple, makhana etc. and canning and storage facility for the above produce.

b) More emphasis on the use of power Ghani or expeller in place of Kolhu for higher recovery.

c) Establishment of dal mills in pulse growing belt as a village cooperative programme.

d) All the above

Ans. (d)

64. Which of the following is / are the priority areas in food processing?

a) Emphasis on cottage industry involving village women for the manufacture of food products.

b) Popularization of low cost engineering storage structures.

c) Starch production from maize and potato and simultaneous oil production from maize.

d) All the above

Ans. (d)

65. Which, of the following are the main components of the post-harvest industry ?

a) Harvesting and threshing

b) Drying and storage

c) Processing (conservation and / or transformation of the produce)

d) All the above

Ans. (d)

66. Rural development programmes should be formed to meet:

a) Short term changes

b) Emergent situation

c) Long term changes

d) All the above

Ans. (d)

67. Rural Landless Employment Guarantee Programme (RLEGP) was started in the year:

a) 1978

b) 1983

c) 1984

d) 1985

Ans. (b)

68. The basic guide, philosopher and friend in rural development is:

a) BDO

b) VDO

c) Pradhan

d) Pramukh

Ans. (b)

69. The basic unit of development under the IRDP is a:

a) District

b) Community development block

c) Village

d) Family

Ans. (b)

70. The Planning Commission of India was set up in:

a) 1949

b) 1950

c) 1951

d) 1952

Ans. (b)

71. Family is included under:

a) Primary group

b) Nuclear group

c) Tertiary group

d) None of the above

Ans. (a)

72. For providing the precise and reliable scientific information in simple language the extension system used is:

a) Lectures

b) Leaflets

c) Pictures

d) Radio talk

Ans. (b)

73. Incharge of the ‘Intensive Agricultural District Programme’ in district is:

a) Project officer

b) Social Welfare officer

c) District Collector

d) District Panchayat raj officer

Ans. (a)

74. Krishi Vigyan Kendra’s are sponsored by:

a) IARI

b) ICAR

c) State Agricultural Universities

d)

State Government

Ans. (b)

75. National Demonstrations were started in:

a) 1985

b) 1965

c) 1948

d) 1970

Ans. (b)

76. NERP was started in:

a) 1952

b) 1977

c) 1995

d) 1976

Ans. (b)

77. A regulated market or controlled market, is the provision of goods or services that is regulated by

a) a government appointed body

b) a private person

c) an NGO

d) ICAR

Ans. (a)

78. Which of the following is correct about regulated markets?

a) It is common for a regulated market to control natural monopolies such as aspects of telecommunications, water, gas and electricity supply.

b) Often regulated markets are established during the partial privatisation of government controlled utility assets

c) In a regulated market, the government regulatory agency may legislate regulations that privilege special interests

d) All the above are correct

Ans. (d)

79. The storage, pricing and marketing of agricultural commodities is as important for high profits as the process of production so the government since 1951 has laid stress on the development of

a) physical markets

b) on farm and off farm storage structures

c) facilities for standardization and grading

d) all the above

Ans. (d)

80. The SFDA and MFAL was formed in:

a) 1965 -66

b) 1992-93

c) 1971 -72

d) 1980- 81

Ans. (c)

81. The technique which protect the traders from extreme fails in price is known as:

a) Speculation

b) Satta bazar

c) Hedging

d) Spot marketing

Ans. (c)

82. Chegu is a

a) Indian sheep breed

b) Indian swine breed

c) Indian goat breed

d) Exotic buffalo breed

Ans. (c)

83. Which of the following type of pigs are found in India?

a) Wild pigs

b) Domesticated indigenous pigs

c) Exotic pigs

d) All the above

Ans. (d)

84. Ghungroo is a / an

a) Indian sheep breed

b) Indian swine breed

c) Indigenous pig

d) Indian goat breed

Ans. (c)

85. Which of the following is correct about Durocs breed of pig?

a) Pigs of this breed have considerable variations in colour

b) Durocs have a medium body length and slightly dished face

c) This breed is known for lean meat

d) All the above

Ans. (d)

86. Poultry includes

a) chicken

b) ducks

c) geese and turkey

d) all the above

Ans. (d)

87. The first phase in the life of poultry is called

a) Growing period

b) Birth period

c) Development period

d) Maturity period

Ans. (a)

88. Which of the following is indigenous poultry breed of India?

a) Phulbani

b) Kalahandi

c) Dumasil

d) All the above

Ans. (d)

89. Which of the following is advantage of chicken farming?

a) Initial investment is a little lower than layer farming

b) Rearing period is 6 – 7 weeks only

c) Broilers have high feed conversion efficiency i.e. least amount of feed is required for unit body weight gain in comparison to other livestock

d) All the above

Ans. (d)

90. Which of the following is correct about Recreation Forestry?

a) This type of forestry is also known as Aesthetic forestry which is defined as the practice of forestry with the object of developing or maintaining a forest of high scenic value

b) It is the practice of forestry for raising fodder grass with scattered fodder trees, fruit trees and fuel wood trees on suitable wastelands, panchayat lands and village commons

c) It is the practice of forestry with the object of raising flowering trees and shrubs mainly to serve as recreation forests for the urban and rural population

d) It was defined by NCA (1976) as the practice of forestry in all its aspects in and the around the farms or village lands integrated with other farm operations

Ans. (a)

91. Which of the following is correct about AGROSILVOPASTORAL SYSTEMS?

a) Agricultural crops are intercropped with tree crops in the interspace between the trees

b) Under this system agricultural crops can be grown upto two years under protective irrigated condition and under rainfed farming upto four years

c) This system is found extensively in high rainfall areas in tropical South and South east Asia

d) In this system, various fodder trees and hedges are planted as live fence to protect the property from stray animals or other biotic influences

Ans. (c)

92. Which of the following is correct about Commercial Agroforestry systems?

a) used whenever the scale of the production of the output is the major aim of the system

b) those wherein the use of land is directed towards satisfying basic needs and is managed mostly by the owner and his family

c) both a and b

d) none of the above

Ans. (a)

93. Efficiency of applied fertilizers in rice crop is:

a) 5-50%

b) 10-75%

c) 50-75%

d) 60-90%

Ans. (b)

94. Efficiency of applied fertilizers in wheat crop is:

a) 20-50%

b) 35-50%

c) 60-80%

d) 44-64%

Ans. (d)

95. Efficiency of symbiotic nitrogen fixation depends on:

a) Host characteristics

b) Microbial strain characteristics

c) Ecological conditions

d) All of the above

Ans. (c)

96. Elements which are absorbed from the soil are known as:

a) Plants nutrients

b) Plant components

c) Pant feeders

d) Plant supplements

Ans. (a)

97. Elluviation refers to:

a) Removal of clay from above horizons to lower horizons

b) Removal of clay and sequioxide from above horizons to lower horizons

c) Removal of sequioxide from above horizons to lower horizons

d) None of the above

Ans. (b)

98. Erosion losses of nitrogen is _____ kg N/ha/ year

a) 10-40

b) 20-60

c) 40-80

d) 60-90

Ans. (b)

99. Farm yard manure:

a) Balanced food for plants

b) Recommended for salinity reclaimation

c) Tends to make soil acidic

d) Tends to make soil alkaline

Ans. (b)

100. In saline soils plant growth is adversely affected

a) through toxicity of specific ions, e.g. Na, CI, B, etc.

b) through the effect of excess salts on the osmotic pressure of soil solution resulting in reduced availability of water

c) through the dispersive effect of excess exchangeable sodium resulting in poor physical properties

d) Both a and b

Ans. (d)

101. Excess soil salinity causes

a) poor and spotty stands of crops

b) uneven and stunted growth

c) poor yields

d) All the above are correct

Ans. (d)

102. Amelioration of soil acidity can be done by:

a) Amount of lime added to increase the pH

b) Amount of sodium added to increase the pH

c) Amount of carbonate added to increase the pH

d) Amount of sulphate added to increase the pH

Ans. (a)

103. Which of the following are acid soils?

a) Laterite

b) Laterite red

c) Podosolic brown

d) All of the above

Ans. (d)

104. A cell’s water potential in hypertonic solution

a) Decreases

b) First increases and then decreases

c) Increases

d) No change

Ans. (a)

105. Which of the following phenomenon is responsible for swelling of dry seeds in water?

a) Capillarity

b) Adsorption

c) Endosmosis

d) All of these

Ans. (d)

106. The ultrafiltration theory to explain the phenomenon of permeability was proposed by

a) Clowes

b) Overton

c) Ruhland

d) Michaelis

Ans. (c)

107. Which of the following symbol is used to indicate the osmotic pressure?

a) П

b) ɸ

c) δ

d) λ

Ans. (a)

108. Both photosynthesis and respiration in a plant require:

a) H2O

b) CO2

c) CO

d) Cytochrome

Ans. (d)

109. ATP is:

a) An enzyme which bring about oxidation

b) A organic compound

c) A vitamin

d) A molecule which contains high energy phosphate bond

Ans. (d)

110. What is the source of energy is respiration?

a) Light

b) Water

c) Carbohydrates

d) All of the above

Ans. (c)

111. Green plants manufacture

a) Sugar, fats, starch and proteins

b) Sugar only

c) Starch only

d) Protein and fats

Ans. (a)

112. Light energy is converted into chemical energy during:

a) Assimilation

b) Osmosis

c) Emulsification

d) Photosynthesis

Ans. (d)

113. The energy stored during photosynthesis is in the form of:

a) ADP

b) ATP

c) AMP

d) GTP

Ans. (b)

114. Intensity of carbon assimilation is great in:

a) Bright light

b) Green light

c) Blue light

d) Red light

Ans. (d)

115. The second largest producer of silk is

a) Nepal

b) India

c) China

d) Japan

Ans. (b)

116. In India, mulberry silk is produced mainly in the states of

a) Karnataka. Andhra Pradesh,

b) Tamil Nadu, Jammu & Kashmir and West Bengal

c) Both a and b

d) None of the above

Ans. (c)

117. The non-mulberry silks are produced in

a) Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Odisha and north-eastern states

b) Tamil Nadu, Jammu & Kashmir and West Bengal

c) Karnataka. Andhra Pradesh

d) None of the above

Ans. (a)

118. Primary Food Plant of mulberry silkworm is

a) Morns indica

b) M. alba

c) M.multicanlis

d) All the above

Ans. (d)

119. The pump is mostly made up of:

a) Iron

b) Zinc

c) Brass

d) Plastic

Ans. (c)

120. A tank capacity of knapsack sprayer is about:

a) 15-20 litres

b) 12-14 litres

c) 9-22.5 litres

d) 10 – 22.5 litres

Ans. (c) 

121. Hand atomizer is used for spraying in:

a) 10 litres

b) 15 litres

c) 25 litres

d) 5 litres

Ans. (a)

122. A plunger type hand duster is suitable for dusting in

a) Small area

b) Medium area

c) Large area

d) All are correct

Ans. (a)

123. The height of spray for rotary type hand sprayer for effective spraying is:

a) 5 meters

b) 10 meters

c) 3 meters

d) 8 meters

Ans. (c)

124. Which one of the following nozzle is used in foam spraying?

a) Vertical fan fan nozzle

b) Solid cone nozzle

c) Windoy type nozzle

d) Air aspirating nozzle

Ans. (d)

125. Crop water need (mm/total growing period) for Maize crop is

a) 350-500

b) 900-1200

c) 500-800

d) 400-600

Ans. (c)