200 + Agricultural Engineering Questions and Answers

Compilation of 200+ Agricultural Engineering questions and answers! Highly useful for cracking Pre PG (Ag) Test, JRF, SRS, ARS, NET, SET, Ph.D, ASRB, IRMA, UPSC, NARBARD, Cooperative Bank, P.O, BEd. MANAGE and allied Agricultural Exam!

1. Which of the following residues include agro-processing residues?

(a) Oilseed shells

(b) Groundnut shells

(d) Bagasse

(e) All

Ans: e

2. Which of the following residues include agro-processing residues?

(a) Molasses

(b) Coconut shells

(d) Wood chips

(e) All

Ans: e

3. Adult man hour power developed is having equivalent energy in megajoule as

(a) 1.96

(b) 1.57

(d) 15.15

(e) 10.1

Ans: a

4. Woman hour power developed is having equivalent energy in megajoule as

(a) 1.96

(b) 1.57

(d) 15.15

(e) 10.1

Ans: b

5. Child hour power developed is having equivalent energy in megajoule as

(a) 1.96

(b) 1.57

(d) 15.15

(e) 10.1

Ans: c

6. He buffaloes pair hour power developed is having equivalent energy in megajoule as

(a) 1.96

(b) 1.57

(d) 15.15

(e) 10.1

Ans: d

7. Camel or horse animal hour power developed is having equivalent energy in megajoule as

(a) 1.96

(b) 1.57

(d) 15.15

(e) 10.1

Ans: e

8. Litre diesel power developed is having equivalent energy in megajoule as

(a) 56.51

(b) 48.23

(d) 64.8

(e) 0.3

Ans: a

9. Litre petrol power developed is having equivalent energy in megajoule as

(a) 56.51

(b) 48.23

(e) 11.93

(d) 64.8

(e) 0.3

Ans: b

10. One kilowatt hour of electricity power developed is having equivalent energy in megajoule as

(a) 56.51

(b) 48.23

(d) 64.8

(e) 0.3

Ans: c

11. Kg electric motor power developed is having equivalent energy in megajoule as

(a) 56.51

(b) 48.23

(d) 64.8

(e) 0.3

Ans: d

12. Kg FYM power developed is having equivalent energy in megajoule as

(a) 56.51

(b) 48.23

(d) 64.8

(e) 0.3

Ans: e

13. The efficiency of diesel engine varies between

(a) 32 and 38%

(b) 25 and 32%

(d) None

Ans: a

14. The efficiency of the carburetor engine (Petrol engine) is in the range of

(a) 32 and 38%

(b) 25 and 32%

(d) None

Ans: b

15. In India, pigeon pea is grown during

(a) Kharif rainy season

(b) Rabi season

(d) None of the above

Ans. (c)

16. Which of the following Soil properties is essential for kaghazi lime

(a) Soil reaction.

(b) Soil fertility

(d) All the above.

Ans. (d)

17. Pigeon peas are very drought resistant and can be grown in areas with

(a) Less than 150 mm annual rainfall

(b) Less than 650 mm annual rainfall

(d) Less than 950 mm annual rainfall

Ans. (b)

18. Chickpea is grown in

(a) Tropical

(b) Sub – tropical

(d) All the above

Ans. (d)

19. The sunflower (Helianthus annuus) is an annual plant native to the

(a) America

(b) Canada

(d) India

Ans. (a)

20. Botanical name of sunflower is

(a) Helianthus annuus

(b) Brassica campestris

(d) None of the above

Ans. (a)

21. Which of the following is correct about SILVOPASTORAL SYSTEMS?

a) The trees and shrubs may be used primarily to produce fodder for livestock or they may be grown for timber, fuel wood, fruit or to improve the soil

b) Agricultural crops are intercropped with tree crops in the interspace between the trees

c) Under this system agricultural crops can be grown upto two years under protective irrigated condition and under rainfed farming upto four years

d) The crops can be grown profitably upto the above said period beyond which it is uneconomical to grow grain crops

Ans. (a)

22. Which of the following is correct about AGROSILVOPASTORAL SYSTEMS?

a) Agricultural crops are intercropped with tree crops in the interspace between the trees

b) Under this system agricultural crops can be grown upto two years under protective irrigated condition and under rainfed farming upto four years

c) This system is found extensively in high rainfall areas in tropical South and South east Asia

d) In this system, various fodder trees and hedges are planted as live fence to protect the property from stray animals or other biotic influences

Ans. (c)

23. Which of the following is correct about Commercial Agroforestry systems?

a) used whenever the scale of the production of the output is the major aim of the system

b) those wherein the use of land is directed towards satisfying basic needs and is managed mostly by the owner and his family

c) both a and b

d) none of the above

Ans. (a)

24. Which of the following is correct about Subsistence Agroforestry systems?

a) used whenever the scale of the production of the output is the major aim of the system

b) those wherein the use of land is directed towards satisfying basic needs and is managed mostly by the owner and his family

c) both a and b

d) none of the above

Ans. (b)

25. Which of the following is social benefit of Agroforestry System?

a) Improvement in rural living standards from sustained employment and higher income

b) Increment in soil nutrients through addition and decomposition of litterfall.

c) Improvement of soil structure through the constant addition of organic matter from decomposed litter

d) Increase in levels of farm income due to improved and sustained productivity

Ans. (a)

26. National Research Centre for Agro-forestry (NRC for Agro-forestry) is located at

a) Ranchi

b) Karnal

c) Jhansi

d) Cuttack

Ans. (c)

27. Independent assortment of genes does not takes place when

a) genes are located on homologous chromosomes

b) genes are linked and located on same chromosome

c) genes are located on non-homogenous chromosome

d) all the above.

Ans. (b)

28. Ratio of complementary genes is

a) 9 : 3 : 4

b) 12 : 3 : 1

c) 9 : 3 : 3 : 4

d) 9 : 7.

Ans. (d)

29. When dominant and recessive alleles express itself together it is called

a) Co-dominance

b) Dominance

c) Amphidominance

d) Pseudo dominance.

Ans. (a)

30. Two linked genes a and b show 20% recombination, the individuals of a dihybrid cross between ++/+ + x ab/ab shall show gametes

a) ++ 80: ab: 20

b) ++ 50: ab: 50

c) ++ 40: ab 40: + a 10: + b: 10

d) ++ 30: ab 30: + a 20: + b: 20

Ans. (c)

31. A normal green male Maize is crossed with albino female. The progeny is albino because

a) trait for a albinism is dominant

b) the albinos have biochemical to destroy plastids derived from green male

c) plastids are inherited from female parent

d) green plastids of male mus. have mutated.

Ans. (c)

32. tt mates with Tt. What will be characteristic of offspring?

a) 75% recessive

b) 50% recessive

c) 25% recessive

d) All dominant.

Ans. (b)

33. ABO blood group system is due to

a) Multifactor inheritance

b) Incomplete dominance

c) Multiple allelism

d) Epistasis.

Ans. (c)

34. In a genetic cross having recessive epistasis, F₂ phenotypic ratio would be

a) 9 : 6 : 1

b) 15 : 1

c) 9 : 3 : 4

d) 12 : 3 : 1.

Ans. (c)

35. Headquarter of the union for the protection of new plant varieties is located in

a) Australia

b) Canada

c) Denmark

d) Switzerland

Ans. (d)

36. Which of the following is/are considered under improved seed?

a) Nucleus seed

b) Breeder seed

c) Foundation seed

d) All of the above

Ans. (d)

37. In bhindi, production of foundation seed needs an isolation distance of

a) 150 meters

b) 250 meters

c) 200 meters

d) 300 meters

Ans. (c)

38. In India, foundation seed is produced by

a) Registered growers

b) Private seed company

c) NSC

d) Farmers

Ans. (c)

39. In Sunflower, production of foundation seed needs an isolation distance of

a) 400 meters

b) 500 meters

c) 300 meters

d) 600 meters

Ans. (a)

40. In Wheat, production of foundation seed needs an isolation distance of

a) 3 meters

b) 2 meters

c) 8 meters

d) 15 meters

Ans. (a)

41. Initial seed of an improved variety is called

a) Nucleus seed

b) Registered seed

c) Foundation seed

d) Certified seed

Ans. (a)

42. Physical purity of 95% is permissible for the foundation and certified seed of

a) Wheat

b) Mustard

c) Spinach

d) Carrot

Ans. (d)

43. Where the wind velocity is what then wind mills can be used for lifting water?

(a) More than 32 kmph

(b) More than 62 kmph

(d) More than 82 kmph

Ans: a

44. It is a part of the internal combustion engine which confines the expanding gases and forms the combustion space

(a) Cylinder

(b) Cylinder block

(d) Cylinder liner or sleeve

(e) Piston

Ans: a

45. It is the solid casting which includes the cylinder and water jackets (cooling fins in the air cooled engines)

(a) Cylinder

(b) Cylinder block

(d) Cylinder liner or sleeve

(e) Piston

Ans: b

46. A disc harrow does not consists of

(a) Disc

(b) Gang

(d) Shoe

Ans: d

47. A disc harrow does not consists of

(a) Gang angle

(b) Gang control lever

(d) Share

Ans: d

48. A disc harrow does not consists of

(a) Bearings

(b) Transport wheels

(d) Weight box

(e) Slips

Ans: e

49. Animal drawn disc harrow consists of

(a) Disc

(b) Gang frame

(d) All

Ans: d

50. Black soils are __________ in organic matter and__________ in bases.

a) Poor, High

b) Medium, Poor

c) High, Poor

d) None of these

Ans. (a)

51. Black soils are_________ when wet and very hard when dry.

a) Very hard

b) Very soft

c) Soft

d) Hard

Ans. (b)

52. Black soils have__________ amount of lime and P.

a) High

b) Low

c) Very Low

d) Very High

Ans. (a)

53. Clay is classified as:

a) Primary minerals

b) Tertiary minerals

c) Hydroxy minerals

d) Secondary minerals

Ans. (d)

54. Commonly used method for enumeration of soil microbial population is:

a) Contact slide technique

b) Microscopic count

c) Dilution plate technique

d) Microbial respiration

Ans. (c)

55. Which statement is NOT true about photoperiodism?

a) A short-day plant flowers when the day length is shorter than some critical length.

b) A day-neutral plant flowers according to some form of regulation other than photoperiodism.

c) A long-day plant will flower even when the day period is not long enough if there is a short period of light during the dark period.

d) The phytochrome form Pf_r is converted to P_r in daylight, producing the active form that induces flowering in long- day plants.

Ans. (d)

56. The Greek root words meaning “plant” and “color” are the basis for the term

a) auxin

b) tropism

c) nastic

d) phytochrome

Ans. (d)

57. How do some plants seeds “know” when it is day and night, and perhaps when to germinate?

a) They chemically count the circadian cycles.

b) All plant hormones are products of photosynthetic systems.

c) Photosynthetic rates provide direct evidence of sun-produced food.

d) Phytochromes cycle between red and far-red absorption and light levels can inhibit germination.

Ans. (d)

58. Gravitropism in roots is:

a) positive when plant roots grow downward.

b) due to statoliths in the root cap cells.

c) due to auxins.

d) All of the above are correct

Ans. (d)

59. Apical dominance in plants is due to which of the following plant hormones?

a) Ethylene

b) Gibberellin

c) Auxins

d) Cytokinins

Ans. (c)

60. Which of the following is/are true regarding gibberellins?

a) There are about 70 chemically different gibberellins

b) Are growth promoters causing stem elongation

c) These hormones can break seed and bud dormancy

d) All of the above are correct

Ans. (d)

61. Soil water potential is measured with the help of

a) Porometer

b) Tensiometer

c) Electric Probe

d) Barometer

Ans. (b)

62. Which of the following phenomenon is responsible for seeds swell when placed in water?

a) Osmosis

b) Hydrolysis

c) Imbibition

d) All of the above

Ans. (c)

63. Which of the following substance shows maximum O.P. in 10% solution?

a) Glucose

b) Sucrose

c) NaCl

d) Fructose

Ans. (c)

64. A membrane which permits the solvent and not the solute to pass through it is called

a) Permeable

b) Impermeable

c) Semipermeable

d) Differentially permeable

Ans. (c)

65. Space between cell wall and plasma membrane in a plasmolysed cell is occupied by

a) Golgi bodies

b) Chloroplast

c) Cell sap

d) Plasmolysing solution

Ans. (d)

66. RQ is:

a) Ratio of O₂ liberated to the CO₂ taken

b) An enzyme for oxidative phosphorylation

c) Ratio of O₂ taken to the CO₂ liberated

d) Unit of respiration

Ans. (c)

67. The apparatus used to measure respiration is called:

a) Photometer

b) Potometer

c) Oxanometer

d) Respirometer

Ans. (d)

68. RQ (respiratory quotient) value is less than 1 in:

a) Proteins

b) Starch

c) Organic acids

d) Carboxylic acid

Ans. (a)

69. The commonest thing which can respire in absence of oxygen is:

a) Potato

b) Nostoc

c) Yeast

d) Fish

Ans. (b)

70. In a demonstration of anaerobic respiration, seeds respire:

a) In presence of O₂

b) In presence of CO₂

c) In absence of O₂

d) In absence of CO₂

Ans. (c)

71. Anaerobic respiration is also known as:

a) Intra – molecular respiration

b) Inter – molecular respiration

c) Extra – molecular respiration

d) Molecular respiration

Ans. (a)

72. Honeybees maintain temperatures in the brood nest of between

a) 10 – 20°C

b) 30 – 34°C

c) 25 – 27°C

d) 5 – 10°C

Ans. (b)

73. The honeybee colony is comprised of

a) one queen

b) two queen

c) three queen

d) four queen

Ans. (a)

74. The honeybee colony comprised of male bees is called as

a) Queen

b) Worker

c) Drones

d) None of the above

Ans. (c)

75. Honeybees can communicate details about the

a) location

b) quality

c) quantity of food sources

d) All the above

Ans. (d)

76. The management and study of honeybees is

a) Apiculture

b) Silviculture

c) Pisciculture

d) None of the above

Ans. (a)

77. Nectar is a sugar solution produced by flowers containing about

a) 40% water and 60% sugars

b) 50% water and 50% sugars

c) 80% water and 20% sugars

d) 10% water and 90% sugars

Ans. (c)

78. Foraging bees store the nectar in the ‘honey sac’ where the enzyme ______ will change complex sugars into simple sugars called mono-saccharides

a) Sucrase

b) Invertase

c) Maltase

d) Rubiase

Ans. (b)

79. A double disc type furrow opener is suitable for:

a) Hilly soil

b) Sticky soil

c) Transhy soil

d) Red soil

Ans. (c)

80. Which of the following material is used for the preparation of seed tubes?

a) Rubber

b) Plastic

c) Mild steel

d) All are correct

Ans. (d)

81. Which of the following type of seed can be sowed by Pneumatic seed drill:

a) Small seeds

b) Bolder seeds

c) Both a and b

d) None of the above

Ans. (c)

82. A suitable metering mechanism for sowing of wheat seed is:

a) Cell feed

b) Brush feed

c) Fluted roller

d) Cup feed

Ans. (c)

83. Which of the following is correct about potato planter?

a) It is an automatic planter

b) It is a semi-automatic planter

c) It is a self-propelled planter

d) All are correct

Ans. (d)

84. The monosaccharide units are linked by 1 to 4 glycosidic linkage in

a) Maltose

b) Glucose

c) Cellulose

d) Insulin

Ans. (a)

85. Which of the following is a non-reducing sugar?

a) Isomaltose

b) Maltose

c) Lactose

d) Sucrose

Ans. (d)

86. Which of the following is a reducing sugar?

a) Sucrose

b) Glucose

c) Isomaltose

d) Starch

Ans. (c)

87. A dissaccharide formed by 1,1-glycosidic linkage between their monosaccharide units is

a) Lactose

b) Maltose

c) Trehalose

d) Sucrose

Ans. (c)

88. A dissaccharide formed by 1,1-glycosidic linkage between their monosaccharide units is

a) Raffinose

b) Maltose

c) Trehalose

d) Glucose

Ans. (b)

89. Mutarotation refers to change in

a) pH

b) Optical rotation

c) Conductance

d) Chemical properties

Ans. (b)

90. A polysacchharide often called animal starch is

a) Glycogen

b) Fructose

c) Starch

d) Dextrin

Ans. (d)

91. The homopolysaccharide used for intravenous infusion as plasma substitute is

a) Agar

b) Inulin

c) Pectin

d) Starch

Ans. (a)

92. Animal drawn disc harrow consists of

(a) Gang angle mechanism

(b) Scraper

(d) Clevis

(e) All

Ans: e

93. Animal drawn disc harrow consists of

(a) Axle

(b) Middle tyne

(d) All

Ans: d

94. A seed drill with mechanical seed metering device mainly consists of

(a) Frame

(b) Seed box

(d) All

Ans: d

95. ………. are constructed to divert runoff from entering to gully head

(a) Diversion drains

(b) Grassed waterways

(d) Gabions

Ans: a

96. Soil conservation measures aims to

(a) Complete check of soil erosion

(b) Maximize crop production

(d) Plant tree everywhere

Ans: c

97. Erosion index of 30 min intensity EI₃₀) is expressed as KE XI₃₀/100 where I₃₀ is

(a) 30 year return period maximum rainfall intensity

(b) 30 min maximum intensity of a storm

(d) Amount of rainfall in initial thirty minute of a storm.

Ans: b

98. Grade given to a graded bund is in the range of

(a) 0.2-0.4%

(b) 2-4%

(d) 8%

Ans: a

99. Excess water drained through graded bund is directly joining to

(a) Next graded bund through pipe outlet

(b) Grassed waterways

(d) Farm pond

Ans: b

100. Clear overfall weir/ surplusing structure are essential component of

(a) Grassed waterways

(b) Graded bund

(d) None of the above

Ans: c

101. Soil erodibility factor in universal soil loss equation USLE depends on

(a) Soil aggregation

(b) Rainfall intensity

(d) All of the above

Ans: a

102. Rainfall erosivity factor in USLE depends on

(a) Soil aggregation

(b) Rainfall intensity

(d) All of the above

Ans: b

103. Which of the following factor of USLE is highly related to soil texture

(a) Rainfall erosivity

(a) Length of slope

(b) Degree of slope

(d) Soil erodibility

Ans: d

104. Length of standard runoff plot in reference to USLE is

(a) 2.2m

(b) 22m

(d) 55m

Ans: b

105. A good land use management practiced over the year is likely to have influence on

(a) Rainfall erosivity

(b) Slope length

(d) Degree of slope

Ans: c

106. Which of the following is erosion permitting crop

(a) Soya bean

(b) Cow Pea

(d) Maize

Ans: d

107. Adjusted soil loss A=A₀/s where A₀ is soil loss from

(a) Given slope s) and slope length 22.3 m

(b) A watershed of 500 ha

(d) None of the above

Ans: a

108. Conservation ditches are recommended in place of contour bund in case of

(a) Red soils

(b) Alluvial soils

(d) In high rainfall area

Ans: c

109. Concept of land capability classification was given by

(a) Weishmeir and Smith

(b) Mannings

(d) Klingbeiel and Montgomery

Ans: d

110. Mechanical and biological soil conservation measures are

(a) Alternative to each other

(b) Complementary to each other

(d) Non interactive to each other

Ans: b

111. A second order stream is joining to another one order stream, the resulting stream will be a ………. stream

(a) Second

(b) Third

(d) None of the above

Ans: a

112. A third order stream is joining to another third order stream, the resulting stream will be a ………. stream

(a) Second

(b) Third

(d) Sixth order

Ans: c

113. In a watershed development programme, treatment of lands should ideally starts from

(a) Top of drainage basin

(b) Bottom of drainage basin

(d) Simultaneously at all corners

Ans: a

114. Find the odd among all:

(a) River basin

(b) Catchments

(d) Watershed

Ans: c

115. Watershed boundary is

(a) Decided by ruling authority

(b) Decided by big farmers of the area

(d) A natural boundary.

Ans: d

116. Watershed is defined as geohydrological unit

(a) Draining to a common point/outlet

(b) Receiving same amount of rainfall

(d) Have similar socioeconomic status of inhabitants

Ans: a

117. Aim of watershed management is

(a) To control the damaging excess runoff

(b) To manage and utilize runoff for useful purpose

(d) All of the above

Ans: d

118. Amount of runoff from a given watershed for a given rainfall event depends on

(a) Type of soil

(b) Drainage density

(d) All of the above

Ans: d

119. Rate and volume of runoff per unit area generally decreases with

(a) Increase in watershed area

(b) Decrease in watershed area

(d) Removal of vegetation

Ans: a

120. Which shape of watershed of a given area is likely to generate more runoff?

(a) Long and narrow

(b) Square/compact

(d) None

Ans: b

121. Drainage density is defined as ratio of

(a) Total length of all stream and catchments area

(b) Total number of all stream and catchments area

(d) Total length of all stream and total number of all stream

Ans: a

122. Total number of class in land capability classification scheme

(a) 4

(b) 6

(d) 10

Ans: c

123. Number of classes suitable for cultivation are

(a) 4

(b) 6

(d) 10

Ans: a

124. Which of the following class is suitable for grazing/orchards?

(a) Class II

(b) Class III

(d) All of the above

Ans: d

125. Colour in which class IV is shown on land capability classification map

(a) Dark green

(b) Red

(d) Purple

Ans: c

126. Colour in which class V is shown on land capability classification map

(a) Dark green

(b) Red

(d) Purple

Ans: a

127. When two fair six-sided die are tossed, what is the probability of getting a sum e” 8?

(a) 1/2

(b) 1/6

(d) 13/18

(e) 5/18

Ans: c

128. To test whether or not two population variances are equal, the appropriate distribution is:

(a) Z distribution

(b) Chi-square distribution

(d) T distribution with n₁+ n₂) degrees of freedom

(e) None of the above

Ans: c

129. Using two independent samples, two population means are compared to determine if a difference exists. The number in the first sample is 15 and the number in the second sample is 12. How many degrees of freedom are associated with the critical t-value?

(a) 27

(b) 26

(d) 14 & 11

(e) None of the above.

Ans: c

130. Approximately what percentage of scores fall within one standard deviation of the mean in a normal distribution?

(a) 34%

(b) 95%

(d) 68%

(e) 5%

Ans: d

131. Given a p-value of 0.065, and using the customary a = 5%, the conclusion should be:

(a) Do not reject the alternate hypothesis

(b) Reject the null hypothesis

(d) Do not reject the null hypothesis

(e) Not enough information to determine

Ans: d

132. What is the probability that a normal random variable with mean 15 and standard deviation 5 will have a value of exactly 25?

(a) 0.0228

(b) 0.0456

(d) 0.0000

(e) 1.0000

Ans: d

133. Which of the following will give a more “accurate” representation of the population from which a sample has been taken?

(a) A large sample based on the convenience sampling technique

(b) A small sample based on simple random sampling

(d) A small cluster sample

(e) All the above will give same accurate representation of population mean

Ans: c

134. If a distribution is skewed to the left, then it is_______

(a) Negatively skewed

(b) Positively skewed

(d) Symmetrical

(e) Platykurtic

Ans: a

135. The type of sampling in which each member of the population selected for the sample is returned to the population before the next member is selected is called____________

(a) Sampling without replacement

(b) Sampling with replacement

(d) Systematic sampling

(e) Cluster sampling

Ans: b

136. Which of the following is not a type of nonrandom sampling?

(a) Cluster sampling

(b) Convenience sampling

(d) Purposive sampling

(e) They are all type of nonrandom sampling

Ans: a

137. _______ is a set of elements taken from a larger population according to certain rules.

(a) Sample

(b) Population

(d) Element

(e) Parameter

Ans: a

138. If you drew all possible samples from some population, calculated the mean for each of the samples, and constructed a line graph showing the shape of the distribution) based on all of those means, what would you have?

(a) A population distribution

(b) A sample distribution

(d) A parameter distribution

(e) A poison distribution

Ans: c

139. What does it mean when you calculate a 95% confidence interval?

(a) The process you used will capture the true parameter 95% of the time in the long run

(b) You can be “95% confident” that your interval will include the population parameter

(d) Only ‘B’ and ‘C’ are true

(e) All of the above ‘ A’, ‘B’ & ‘C’) statements are true

Ans: e

140. What would happen other things equal) to a confidence interval if you calculated a 99 percent confidence interval rather than a 95 percent confidence interval?

(a) It will be narrower

(b) It will not change

(d) It will become wider

(e) The sample size will decrease

Ans: d

141. When two fair six-sided die are tossed, what is the expected value of the sum of the faces?

(a) 6

(b) 7

(d) 4

(e) 12

Ans: b

142. In a grouped frequency distribution, the intervals should be what?

(a) Mutually exclusive

(b) Exhaustive

(d) Neither A nor B

(e) All the above

Ans: c

143. Which of the following is second largest producer and exporter of coffee in the world?

(a) India

(b) Japan

(d) Iran

Ans. (a)

144. Which of the following is second largest producer and exporter of spices in the world?

(a) China

(b) India

(d) Netherland

Ans. (b)

145. The second largest producer and exporter of cashew in the world is:

(a) China

(b) India

(d) Pakistan

Ans. (b)

146. The country has recorded highest productivity (25.4 tonnes/ha) in the case of in the world.

(a) Wheat

(b) Grapes

(d) Banana

Ans. (b)

147. India’s arable land area of 159.7 million hectares (394.6 million acres) is the_________ largest in the world.

(a) First

(b) Second

d) None of the above

Ans. (b)

148. India has gross irrigated crop area of 82.6 million hectares (215 6 million acres) which is the in the world.

(a) Lowest

(b) Largest

(d) None of the above

Ans. (b)

149. India is one of the world’s five largest producers of

(a) Wheat and oilseed

(b) Livestock and poultry meat

(d) All of the above

Ans. (b)

150. About 90% of the total production of Gram comes from which five states?

(a) Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, Rajasthan, Haryana and Maharashtra

(b) Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Rajasthan, Haryana and Maharashtra

(d) Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Kerala, Haryana and Tamil Nadu

Ans. (b)

151. Tocopherols prevent the oxidation of

a) Vitamin A

b) Vitamin D

c) Vitamin E

d) Vitamin C

Ans. (a)

152. Creatinuria is caused due to the deficiency of

a) Vitamin B

b) Vitamin K

c) Vitamin E

d) Vitamin C

Ans. (c)

153. In TCA cycle, oxalosuccinate is converted to α-ketoglutarate by the enzyme:

a) Phosphofructokinage

b) Isocitrate dehydrogenase

c) Phosphohexose isomerase

d) Succinase

Ans. (b)

154. Which of the following is required by enzyme – ketoglutarate dehydrogenase in the citric acid cycle?

a) Lipoate

b) Folate

c) Pyridoxine

d) Inositol

Ans. (a)

155. Phosphofructokinase key enzyme in glycolysis is inhibited by

a) Citrate and ATP

b) AMP

c) ADP

d) ATP

Ans. (a)

156. One of the enzymes regulating glycolysis is

a) Phosphofructokinase

b) Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase

c) Aconitase

d) Succinase

Ans. (a)

157. Hexokinase is inhibited in an allosteric manner by

a) Glucose – 6 – Phosphate

b) Glucose-1, 6 – diphosphate

c) Fructose – 6 – phosphate

d) Fructose-1, 6 – biphosphate

Ans. (a)

158. A reaction considered an isomerisation is

a) Glucose 6-Phosphate fructose 6 phosphate

b) 3-Phosphoglycerate 2-phosphoglycerate

c) 2-phosphoglycerate phosphoenolpyruvate

d) Glucose 1-6- diphosphate

Ans. (a)

159. Xylulose-5-phosphate serves as a donar of active glycolaldehyde, the acceptor is

a) Erythrose 4 – phosphate

b) Ribose 5 – phosphate

c) Fructose 6 – phosphate

d) Glucose 7 – phosphate

Ans. (a)

160. Pentose phosphate pathway is of significance because it

a) Generates NADPH for reductive synthesis

b) Regenerates glucose 6-phosphate

c) Generates fructose 6-phosphate

d) Forms glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate

Ans. (a)

161. The pentose phosphate pathway protects erythrocytes against hemolysis by assisting the enzyme:

a) Fumerase

b) Aconitase

c) Glutathionic peroxidase

d) Cytochrome oxidase

Ans. (c)

162. The most important symptom of wilt of cotton (caused by Fusarium oxysporum sp. vasinfectum) is:

a) Necrosis

b) Yellowing of tissues

c) Discoloration of tissues and plugging of vessels by hyphae

d) All of these

Ans. (c)

163. Wilt disease of sugarcane was reported for the first time in India in the state of:

a) Punjab

b) Tamil Nadu

c) Bihar

d) Uttar Pradesh

Ans. (c)

164. The pathogen responsible for charcoal rot of soybean is:

a) Aschchyta rabiei

b) Macrophomina phaseolina

c) Rhizoctonia solani

d) Penicillium

Ans. (b)

165. The incidence of black scurf of potato is more in:

a) Sandy soil

b) Clay soil

c) Alluvial soil

d) Loam soil

Ans. (a)

166. The attack of sheath blight of rice (caused by Rhizoctonia solani) is more during:

a) Germination

b) Active tillering stage

c) Flowering

d) All of these

Ans. (b)

167. Rice blast pathogen perfect stage is:

a) Pyricularia oryzae

b) Magnaporthe grisea

c) Helminthosporium

d) Rhizoctonia

Ans. (b)

168. Smut of maize is caused by:

a) Ustilago tritici

b) Ustilago maydis

c) Ustilago hordei

d) None of these

Ans. (b)

169. Sterility mosaic disease of pigeonpea is spread by:

a) Virus

b) Aphid

c) Whitefly

d) Mites

Ans. (d)

170. Downey mildew is caused by:

a) Perenospora pisi

b) Albugo Candida

c) Erysiphae polygoni

d) None of these

Ans. (a)

171. If the probability of A is 0.45 and the probability of the intersection of A and B is 0.15, then the probability that B will occur given that A has occurred is:

(a) 3.00

(b) 1.00

(d) 1/9

(e) 0.675

Ans: c

172. The symptom of red rot of sugarcane is mostly found on:

a) Stem

b) Root

c) Leaf

d) Arrow

Ans. (a)

173. The advantages of handling packages on pallets are

a) Labour cost in handling is greatly reduced

b) Transport cost is reduced

c) Goods are protected and damage is reduced

d) All the above

Ans. (d)

174. Pallets are widely used for

a) the transport of fruit & vegetable packages

b) for transport of rice

c) for storage of wheat

d) for storage of liquid material

Ans. (a)

175. What is the importance of Ventilation of Packages?

a) Airflow through the ventilation holes allows hot fruit or vegetable to slowly cool and avoid the buildup of heat produced by the commodity in respiration.

b) Holes are also important in cooling the fruit when the packages are placed in a cold storage, especially with forced air- cooling.

c) Ventilation holes improve the dispersal of ethylene produced

d) All the above

Ans. (d)

176. Function of Cushioning Materials is

a) to fix the commodities inside the packages and prevent them from mixing about in relation to each other and the package itself, when there is a vibration or impact

b) to identity the product

c) to protect the material from theft

d) to protect the material from moisture

Ans. (a)

177. Modified atmosphere packaging is

a) The method for extending the shelf-life of perishable and semi-perishable food products by altering the relative proportions of atmospheric gases that surround the produce

b) Plastic packaging

c) Package with steel sheet

d) To cool the product for increasing the self-life of product

Ans. (a)

178. Which of the following is correct about Controlled Atmosphere (CA)?

a) It is to a storage atmosphere that is different from the normal atmosphere in its composition, wherein the component gases are precisely adjusted to specific concentrations and maintained throughout the storage and distribution of the perishable foods.

b) It relies on the continuous measurement of the composition of the storage atmosphere and injection of the appropriate gases or gas mixtures into it, if and when needed.

c) This system requires sophisticated instruments to monitor the gas levels and is therefore practical only for refrigerated bulk storage or shipment of commodities in large containers

d) All the above are correct

Ans. (d)

179. Which of the following is correct about Modified Atmospheric Packaging (MAP)?

a) Modified atmosphere conditions are created inside the packages by the commodity itself and / or by active modification

b) Commodity generated or passive MA (Modified Atmosphere) is evolved as a consequence of the commodity’s respiration

c) If the shelf life of a commodity at 20- 25°C is one day, then by employing MAP, it will get ten times more

d) Both a and b are correct

Ans. (d)

180. Choose the correct statement about RTS:

a) It is prepared from fruit juices which must have atleast 10 per cent fruit juice and 10 per cent total sugar

b) It is prepared from fruit juices which must have atleast 50 per cent fruit juice and 50 per cent total sugar

c) It is prepared from fruit juices which must have atleast 80 per cent fruit juice and 20 per cent total sugar

d) It is prepared from fruit juices which must have atleast 70 per cent fruit juice and 30 per cent total sugar

Ans. (a)

181. Post harvest technology is inter-disciplinary “Science and Technique” applied to agricultural produce after harvest for its

a) Protection and conservation

b) Processing and packaging

c) Distribution and marketing

d) All the above

Ans. (d)

182. A community development blocks passes through

a) 2 stages of development

b) 1 stages of development

c) 4 stages of development

d) None of the above

Ans. (c)

183. Balwant Rai Mehta committee stimulated a active consideration of ________through democratic bodies

a) Centralization

b) Mobilization

c) Stabilization

d) Decentraization

Ans. (d)

184. Basic operational unit for rural development if India is:

a) Village

b) District

c) Tehsil

d) Block

Ans. (d)

185. Community Development programmes were introduced in India for rural development:

a) In early 40’s

b) In early 50’s

c) In early 60’s

d) In early 70’s

Ans. (b)

186. For rural development, a conducive ecology and environment is essential because:

a) Rural life styles have close links with nature and its resources

b) Rural houses are mostly unhygienic

c) Rural people do not care for ecology

d) None of the above

Ans. (a)

187. Fourth FYP was started in the year:

a) 1965

b) 1966

c) 1969

d) 1967

Ans. (c)

188. In India there are about village Panchayats.

a) 1, 15,000

b) 2, 16,000

c) 5, 00,000

d) 75, 7500

Ans. (b)

189. Facilitating micro credit through self-help groups among the poor is now a well-accepted method of

a) poverty alleviation

b) agriculture development

c) family development

d) All the above

Ans. (a)

190. Total number of KVKs under ICAR in India (as on Nov. 2017)

a) 680

b) 698

c) 785

d) 900

Ans. (a)

191. Which of the following is / are the objectives of Krishi Vigyan Kendras (KVKs)?

a) Planning and conducting survey of the operational area in order to prepare the resource inventory with special reference to identifying the training needs of the farming community.

b) Planning and conducting production- oriented, need-based short and long duration training courses both on campus as well as in the villages for various target groups with priority on the weaker and the poor.

c) Developing and organizing non-formal educational programmes by way of field days, farm visits, farmers fair, radio talk, Farm Science clubs etc. as the follow up information support to training courses

d) All the above

Ans. (d)

192. The highest Krishi Vigyan Kendra (KVK) of India was set-up at

a) Nyoma, Leh district of Jammu and Kashmir

b) Andaman and Nicobar

c) Lakshadweep

d) Sikkim

Ans. (a)

193. The activities of the KVK include

a) technology assessment

b) refinement and transfer

c) aiming to bridge the gap between the technology developed at the research institutions and its adoption at the field level by the farmers through demonstration of technology / products etc

d) All the above

Ans. (d)

194. Planning Commission allocated Rs.___________ specifically for the establishment of new KVKs during Xth plan period,

a) 100 crores

b) 100 crores

c) 400 crores

d) 500 crores

Ans. (d)

195. The credit for the success of Krishi Vigyan Kendras (KVK) goes to—

a) Dr. R. S. Paroda

b) Dr. Chandrika Prasad

c) Dr. Mohan Singh Mehta

d) Dr. Mangla Rai

Ans. (d)

196. Which of the following plays an important role in economic empowerment of women?

a) Self-Help Groups (SHGs)

b) NGOs

c) KVKs

d) None of the above

Ans. (a)

197. A Self-Help Group is a small voluntary association of

a) Rich people

b) Poor people

c) Middle class people

d) None of the above

Ans. (b)

198. What is the main function of seed drill?

a) To carry seeds

b) To meter seeds

c) To deposits seeds in furrow

d) All are correct

Ans. (d)

199. Seed drill are used for sowing:

a) Small seeds

b) Bolder seeds

c) Germinating seeds

d) Seeds in irrigated land

Ans. (a)

200. Planters are used for sowing:

a) Small seeds

b) Bolder seeds

c) Germinating seeds

d) Seedlings

Ans. (b)

201. Which of the following is/are the objectives of watershed management?

a) To protect conserve and improve the land resources for efficient and sustained production

b) To protect and enhance water resources

c) To utilize the natural local resources for improving agriculture and allied occupation

d) All of the above

Ans. (d)