Compilation of 200+ Agricultural Engineering questions and answers! Highly useful for cracking Pre PG (Ag) Test, JRF, SRS, ARS, NET, SET, Ph.D, ASRB, IRMA, UPSC, NARBARD, Cooperative Bank, P.O, BEd. MANAGE and allied Agricultural Exam!
1. Which of the following residues include agro-processing residues?
(a) Oilseed shells
(b) Groundnut shells
(c) Husk
(d) Bagasse
(e) All
Ans: e
2. Which of the following residues include agro-processing residues?
(a) Molasses
(b) Coconut shells
(c) Saw dust
(d) Wood chips
(e) All
Ans: e
3. Adult man hour power developed is having equivalent energy in megajoule as
(a) 1.96
(b) 1.57
(c) 0.98
(d) 15.15
(e) 10.1
Ans: a
4. Woman hour power developed is having equivalent energy in megajoule as
(a) 1.96
(b) 1.57
(c) 0.98
(d) 15.15
(e) 10.1
Ans: b
5. Child hour power developed is having equivalent energy in megajoule as
(a) 1.96
(b) 1.57
(c) 0.98
(d) 15.15
(e) 10.1
Ans: c
6. He buffaloes pair hour power developed is having equivalent energy in megajoule as
(a) 1.96
(b) 1.57
(c) 0.98
(d) 15.15
(e) 10.1
Ans: d
7. Camel or horse animal hour power developed is having equivalent energy in megajoule as
(a) 1.96
(b) 1.57
(c) 0.98
(d) 15.15
(e) 10.1
Ans: e
8. Litre diesel power developed is having equivalent energy in megajoule as
(a) 56.51
(b) 48.23
(c) 11.93
(d) 64.8
(e) 0.3
Ans: a
9. Litre petrol power developed is having equivalent energy in megajoule as
(a) 56.51
(b) 48.23
(e) 11.93
(d) 64.8
(e) 0.3
Ans: b
10. One kilowatt hour of electricity power developed is having equivalent energy in megajoule as
(a) 56.51
(b) 48.23
(c) 11.93
(d) 64.8
(e) 0.3
Ans: c
11. Kg electric motor power developed is having equivalent energy in megajoule as
(a) 56.51
(b) 48.23
(c) 11.93
(d) 64.8
(e) 0.3
Ans: d
12. Kg FYM power developed is having equivalent energy in megajoule as
(a) 56.51
(b) 48.23
(c) 11.93
(d) 64.8
(e) 0.3
Ans: e
13. The efficiency of diesel engine varies between
(a) 32 and 38%
(b) 25 and 32%
(c) 2 and 8%
(d) None
Ans: a
14. The efficiency of the carburetor engine (Petrol engine) is in the range of
(a) 32 and 38%
(b) 25 and 32%
(c) 2 and 8%
(d) None
Ans: b
15. In India, pigeon pea is grown during
(a) Kharif rainy season
(b) Rabi season
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
16. Which of the following Soil properties is essential for kaghazi lime
(a) Soil reaction.
(b) Soil fertility
(c) Free lime and salt concentrations
(d) All the above.
Ans. (d)
17. Pigeon peas are very drought resistant and can be grown in areas with
(a) Less than 150 mm annual rainfall
(b) Less than 650 mm annual rainfall
(c) Less than 350 mm annual rainfall
(d) Less than 950 mm annual rainfall
Ans. (b)
18. Chickpea is grown in
(a) Tropical
(b) Sub – tropical
(c) Temperate regions
(d) All the above
Ans. (d)
19. The sunflower (Helianthus annuus) is an annual plant native to the
(a) America
(b) Canada
(c) Australia
(d) India
Ans. (a)
20. Botanical name of sunflower is
(a) Helianthus annuus
(b) Brassica campestris
(c) Alium sepa
(d) None of the above
Ans. (a)
21. Which of the following is correct about SILVOPASTORAL SYSTEMS?
a) The trees and shrubs may be used primarily to produce fodder for livestock or they may be grown for timber, fuel wood, fruit or to improve the soil
b) Agricultural crops are intercropped with tree crops in the interspace between the trees
c) Under this system agricultural crops can be grown upto two years under protective irrigated condition and under rainfed farming upto four years
d) The crops can be grown profitably upto the above said period beyond which it is uneconomical to grow grain crops
Ans. (a)
22. Which of the following is correct about AGROSILVOPASTORAL SYSTEMS?
a) Agricultural crops are intercropped with tree crops in the interspace between the trees
b) Under this system agricultural crops can be grown upto two years under protective irrigated condition and under rainfed farming upto four years
c) This system is found extensively in high rainfall areas in tropical South and South east Asia
d) In this system, various fodder trees and hedges are planted as live fence to protect the property from stray animals or other biotic influences
Ans. (c)
23. Which of the following is correct about Commercial Agroforestry systems?
a) used whenever the scale of the production of the output is the major aim of the system
b) those wherein the use of land is directed towards satisfying basic needs and is managed mostly by the owner and his family
c) both a and b
d) none of the above
Ans. (a)
24. Which of the following is correct about Subsistence Agroforestry systems?
a) used whenever the scale of the production of the output is the major aim of the system
b) those wherein the use of land is directed towards satisfying basic needs and is managed mostly by the owner and his family
c) both a and b
d) none of the above
Ans. (b)
25. Which of the following is social benefit of Agroforestry System?
a) Improvement in rural living standards from sustained employment and higher income
b) Increment in soil nutrients through addition and decomposition of litterfall.
c) Improvement of soil structure through the constant addition of organic matter from decomposed litter
d) Increase in levels of farm income due to improved and sustained productivity
Ans. (a)
26. National Research Centre for Agro-forestry (NRC for Agro-forestry) is located at
a) Ranchi
b) Karnal
c) Jhansi
d) Cuttack
Ans. (c)
27. Independent assortment of genes does not takes place when
a) genes are located on homologous chromosomes
b) genes are linked and located on same chromosome
c) genes are located on non-homogenous chromosome
d) all the above.
Ans. (b)
28. Ratio of complementary genes is
a) 9 : 3 : 4
b) 12 : 3 : 1
c) 9 : 3 : 3 : 4
d) 9 : 7.
Ans. (d)
29. When dominant and recessive alleles express itself together it is called
a) Co-dominance
b) Dominance
c) Amphidominance
d) Pseudo dominance.
Ans. (a)
30. Two linked genes a and b show 20% recombination, the individuals of a dihybrid cross between ++/+ + x ab/ab shall show gametes
a) ++ 80: ab: 20
b) ++ 50: ab: 50
c) ++ 40: ab 40: + a 10: + b: 10
d) ++ 30: ab 30: + a 20: + b: 20
Ans. (c)
31. A normal green male Maize is crossed with albino female. The progeny is albino because
a) trait for a albinism is dominant
b) the albinos have biochemical to destroy plastids derived from green male
c) plastids are inherited from female parent
d) green plastids of male mus. have mutated.
Ans. (c)
32. tt mates with Tt. What will be characteristic of offspring?
a) 75% recessive
b) 50% recessive
c) 25% recessive
d) All dominant.
Ans. (b)
33. ABO blood group system is due to
a) Multifactor inheritance
b) Incomplete dominance
c) Multiple allelism
d) Epistasis.
Ans. (c)
34. In a genetic cross having recessive epistasis, F2 phenotypic ratio would be
a) 9 : 6 : 1
b) 15 : 1
c) 9 : 3 : 4
d) 12 : 3 : 1.
Ans. (c)
35. Headquarter of the union for the protection of new plant varieties is located in
a) Australia
b) Canada
c) Denmark
d) Switzerland
Ans. (d)
36. Which of the following is/are considered under improved seed?
a) Nucleus seed
b) Breeder seed
c) Foundation seed
d) All of the above
Ans. (d)
37. In bhindi, production of foundation seed needs an isolation distance of
a) 150 meters
b) 250 meters
c) 200 meters
d) 300 meters
Ans. (c)
38. In India, foundation seed is produced by
a) Registered growers
b) Private seed company
c) NSC
d) Farmers
Ans. (c)
39. In Sunflower, production of foundation seed needs an isolation distance of
a) 400 meters
b) 500 meters
c) 300 meters
d) 600 meters
Ans. (a)
40. In Wheat, production of foundation seed needs an isolation distance of
a) 3 meters
b) 2 meters
c) 8 meters
d) 15 meters
Ans. (a)
41. Initial seed of an improved variety is called
a) Nucleus seed
b) Registered seed
c) Foundation seed
d) Certified seed
Ans. (a)
42. Physical purity of 95% is permissible for the foundation and certified seed of
a) Wheat
b) Mustard
c) Spinach
d) Carrot
Ans. (d)
43. Where the wind velocity is what then wind mills can be used for lifting water?
(a) More than 32 kmph
(b) More than 62 kmph
(c) More than 52 kmph
(d) More than 82 kmph
Ans: a
44. It is a part of the internal combustion engine which confines the expanding gases and forms the combustion space
(a) Cylinder
(b) Cylinder block
(c) Cylinder head
(d) Cylinder liner or sleeve
(e) Piston
Ans: a
45. It is the solid casting which includes the cylinder and water jackets (cooling fins in the air cooled engines)
(a) Cylinder
(b) Cylinder block
(c) Cylinder head
(d) Cylinder liner or sleeve
(e) Piston
Ans: b
46. A disc harrow does not consists of
(a) Disc
(b) Gang
(c) Gang bolt or arbor bolt
(d) Shoe
Ans: d
47. A disc harrow does not consists of
(a) Gang angle
(b) Gang control lever
(c) Spools or spacer
(d) Share
Ans: d
48. A disc harrow does not consists of
(a) Bearings
(b) Transport wheels
(c) Scraper
(d) Weight box
(e) Slips
Ans: e
49. Animal drawn disc harrow consists of
(a) Disc
(b) Gang frame
(c) Beam
(d) All
Ans: d
50. Black soils are __________ in organic matter and__________ in bases.
a) Poor, High
b) Medium, Poor
c) High, Poor
d) None of these
Ans. (a)
51. Black soils are_________ when wet and very hard when dry.
a) Very hard
b) Very soft
c) Soft
d) Hard
Ans. (b)
52. Black soils have__________ amount of lime and P.
a) High
b) Low
c) Very Low
d) Very High
Ans. (a)
53. Clay is classified as:
a) Primary minerals
b) Tertiary minerals
c) Hydroxy minerals
d) Secondary minerals
Ans. (d)
54. Commonly used method for enumeration of soil microbial population is:
a) Contact slide technique
b) Microscopic count
c) Dilution plate technique
d) Microbial respiration
Ans. (c)
55. Which statement is NOT true about photoperiodism?
a) A short-day plant flowers when the day length is shorter than some critical length.
b) A day-neutral plant flowers according to some form of regulation other than photoperiodism.
c) A long-day plant will flower even when the day period is not long enough if there is a short period of light during the dark period.
d) The phytochrome form Pfr is converted to Pr in daylight, producing the active form that induces flowering in long- day plants.
Ans. (d)
56. The Greek root words meaning “plant” and “color” are the basis for the term
a) auxin
b) tropism
c) nastic
d) phytochrome
Ans. (d)
57. How do some plants seeds “know” when it is day and night, and perhaps when to germinate?
a) They chemically count the circadian cycles.
b) All plant hormones are products of photosynthetic systems.
c) Photosynthetic rates provide direct evidence of sun-produced food.
d) Phytochromes cycle between red and far-red absorption and light levels can inhibit germination.
Ans. (d)
58. Gravitropism in roots is:
a) positive when plant roots grow downward.
b) due to statoliths in the root cap cells.
c) due to auxins.
d) All of the above are correct
Ans. (d)
59. Apical dominance in plants is due to which of the following plant hormones?
a) Ethylene
b) Gibberellin
c) Auxins
d) Cytokinins
Ans. (c)
60. Which of the following is/are true regarding gibberellins?
a) There are about 70 chemically different gibberellins
b) Are growth promoters causing stem elongation
c) These hormones can break seed and bud dormancy
d) All of the above are correct
Ans. (d)
61. Soil water potential is measured with the help of
a) Porometer
b) Tensiometer
c) Electric Probe
d) Barometer
Ans. (b)
62. Which of the following phenomenon is responsible for seeds swell when placed in water?
a) Osmosis
b) Hydrolysis
c) Imbibition
d) All of the above
Ans. (c)
63. Which of the following substance shows maximum O.P. in 10% solution?
a) Glucose
b) Sucrose
c) NaCl
d) Fructose
Ans. (c)
64. A membrane which permits the solvent and not the solute to pass through it is called
a) Permeable
b) Impermeable
c) Semipermeable
d) Differentially permeable
Ans. (c)
65. Space between cell wall and plasma membrane in a plasmolysed cell is occupied by
a) Golgi bodies
b) Chloroplast
c) Cell sap
d) Plasmolysing solution
Ans. (d)
66. RQ is:
a) Ratio of O2 liberated to the CO2 taken
b) An enzyme for oxidative phosphorylation
c) Ratio of O2 taken to the CO2 liberated
d) Unit of respiration
Ans. (c)
67. The apparatus used to measure respiration is called:
a) Photometer
b) Potometer
c) Oxanometer
d) Respirometer
Ans. (d)
68. RQ (respiratory quotient) value is less than 1 in:
a) Proteins
b) Starch
c) Organic acids
d) Carboxylic acid
Ans. (a)
69. The commonest thing which can respire in absence of oxygen is:
a) Potato
b) Nostoc
c) Yeast
d) Fish
Ans. (b)
70. In a demonstration of anaerobic respiration, seeds respire:
a) In presence of O2
b) In presence of CO2
c) In absence of O2
d) In absence of CO2
Ans. (c)
71. Anaerobic respiration is also known as:
a) Intra – molecular respiration
b) Inter – molecular respiration
c) Extra – molecular respiration
d) Molecular respiration
Ans. (a)
72. Honeybees maintain temperatures in the brood nest of between
a) 10 – 20°C
b) 30 – 34°C
c) 25 – 27°C
d) 5 – 10°C
Ans. (b)
73. The honeybee colony is comprised of
a) one queen
b) two queen
c) three queen
d) four queen
Ans. (a)
74. The honeybee colony comprised of male bees is called as
a) Queen
b) Worker
c) Drones
d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
75. Honeybees can communicate details about the
a) location
b) quality
c) quantity of food sources
d) All the above
Ans. (d)
76. The management and study of honeybees is
a) Apiculture
b) Silviculture
c) Pisciculture
d) None of the above
Ans. (a)
77. Nectar is a sugar solution produced by flowers containing about
a) 40% water and 60% sugars
b) 50% water and 50% sugars
c) 80% water and 20% sugars
d) 10% water and 90% sugars
Ans. (c)
78. Foraging bees store the nectar in the ‘honey sac’ where the enzyme ______ will change complex sugars into simple sugars called mono-saccharides
a) Sucrase
b) Invertase
c) Maltase
d) Rubiase
Ans. (b)
79. A double disc type furrow opener is suitable for:
a) Hilly soil
b) Sticky soil
c) Transhy soil
d) Red soil
Ans. (c)
80. Which of the following material is used for the preparation of seed tubes?
a) Rubber
b) Plastic
c) Mild steel
d) All are correct
Ans. (d)
81. Which of the following type of seed can be sowed by Pneumatic seed drill:
a) Small seeds
b) Bolder seeds
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
82. A suitable metering mechanism for sowing of wheat seed is:
a) Cell feed
b) Brush feed
c) Fluted roller
d) Cup feed
Ans. (c)
83. Which of the following is correct about potato planter?
a) It is an automatic planter
b) It is a semi-automatic planter
c) It is a self-propelled planter
d) All are correct
Ans. (d)
84. The monosaccharide units are linked by 1 to 4 glycosidic linkage in
a) Maltose
b) Glucose
c) Cellulose
d) Insulin
Ans. (a)
85. Which of the following is a non-reducing sugar?
a) Isomaltose
b) Maltose
c) Lactose
d) Sucrose
Ans. (d)
86. Which of the following is a reducing sugar?
a) Sucrose
b) Glucose
c) Isomaltose
d) Starch
Ans. (c)
87. A dissaccharide formed by 1,1-glycosidic linkage between their monosaccharide units is
a) Lactose
b) Maltose
c) Trehalose
d) Sucrose
Ans. (c)
88. A dissaccharide formed by 1,1-glycosidic linkage between their monosaccharide units is
a) Raffinose
b) Maltose
c) Trehalose
d) Glucose
Ans. (b)
89. Mutarotation refers to change in
a) pH
b) Optical rotation
c) Conductance
d) Chemical properties
Ans. (b)
90. A polysacchharide often called animal starch is
a) Glycogen
b) Fructose
c) Starch
d) Dextrin
Ans. (d)
91. The homopolysaccharide used for intravenous infusion as plasma substitute is
a) Agar
b) Inulin
c) Pectin
d) Starch
Ans. (a)
92. Animal drawn disc harrow consists of
(a) Gang angle mechanism
(b) Scraper
(c) Spacer
(d) Clevis
(e) All
Ans: e
93. Animal drawn disc harrow consists of
(a) Axle
(b) Middle tyne
(c) Bearings
(d) All
Ans: d
94. A seed drill with mechanical seed metering device mainly consists of
(a) Frame
(b) Seed box
(c) Seed metering mechanism
(d) All
Ans: d
95. ………. are constructed to divert runoff from entering to gully head
(a) Diversion drains
(b) Grassed waterways
(c) Check dams
(d) Gabions
Ans: a
96. Soil conservation measures aims to
(a) Complete check of soil erosion
(b) Maximize crop production
(c) Reduce soil erosion to a permissible limit and increase crop production
(d) Plant tree everywhere
Ans: c
97. Erosion index of 30 min intensity EI30) is expressed as KE XI30/100 where I30 is
(a) 30 year return period maximum rainfall intensity
(b) 30 min maximum intensity of a storm
(c) 30 min max intensity of a 30 year return period
(d) Amount of rainfall in initial thirty minute of a storm.
Ans: b
98. Grade given to a graded bund is in the range of
(a) 0.2-0.4%
(b) 2-4%
(c) 20-40%
(d) 8%
Ans: a
99. Excess water drained through graded bund is directly joining to
(a) Next graded bund through pipe outlet
(b) Grassed waterways
(c) Diversion drains
(d) Farm pond
Ans: b
100. Clear overfall weir/ surplusing structure are essential component of
(a) Grassed waterways
(b) Graded bund
(c) Contour bund
(d) None of the above
Ans: c
101. Soil erodibility factor in universal soil loss equation USLE depends on
(a) Soil aggregation
(b) Rainfall intensity
(c) Type of vegetative over
(d) All of the above
Ans: a
102. Rainfall erosivity factor in USLE depends on
(a) Soil aggregation
(b) Rainfall intensity
(c) Type of vegetative cover
(d) All of the above
Ans: b
103. Which of the following factor of USLE is highly related to soil texture
(a) Rainfall erosivity
(a) Length of slope
(b) Degree of slope
(c) Rainfall erosivity
(d) Soil erodibility
Ans: d
104. Length of standard runoff plot in reference to USLE is
(a) 2.2m
(b) 22m
(c) 220m
(d) 55m
Ans: b
105. A good land use management practiced over the year is likely to have influence on
(a) Rainfall erosivity
(b) Slope length
(c) Soil erodibility
(d) Degree of slope
Ans: c
106. Which of the following is erosion permitting crop
(a) Soya bean
(b) Cow Pea
(c) Groundnut
(d) Maize
Ans: d
107. Adjusted soil loss A=A0/s where A0 is soil loss from
(a) Given slope s) and slope length 22.3 m
(b) A watershed of 500 ha
(c) Standard runoff plots under up-down cultivation
(d) None of the above
Ans: a
108. Conservation ditches are recommended in place of contour bund in case of
(a) Red soils
(b) Alluvial soils
(c) Black soils
(d) In high rainfall area
Ans: c
109. Concept of land capability classification was given by
(a) Weishmeir and Smith
(b) Mannings
(c) Chezys
(d) Klingbeiel and Montgomery
Ans: d
110. Mechanical and biological soil conservation measures are
(a) Alternative to each other
(b) Complementary to each other
(c) Supplementary to each other
(d) Non interactive to each other
Ans: b
111. A second order stream is joining to another one order stream, the resulting stream will be a ………. stream
(a) Second
(b) Third
(c) Fourth
(d) None of the above
Ans: a
112. A third order stream is joining to another third order stream, the resulting stream will be a ………. stream
(a) Second
(b) Third
(c) Fourth
(d) Sixth order
Ans: c
113. In a watershed development programme, treatment of lands should ideally starts from
(a) Top of drainage basin
(b) Bottom of drainage basin
(c) Middle of drainage basin
(d) Simultaneously at all corners
Ans: a
114. Find the odd among all:
(a) River basin
(b) Catchments
(c) District
(d) Watershed
Ans: c
115. Watershed boundary is
(a) Decided by ruling authority
(b) Decided by big farmers of the area
(c) By forest department
(d) A natural boundary.
Ans: d
116. Watershed is defined as geohydrological unit
(a) Draining to a common point/outlet
(b) Receiving same amount of rainfall
(c) Have similar land use
(d) Have similar socioeconomic status of inhabitants
Ans: a
117. Aim of watershed management is
(a) To control the damaging excess runoff
(b) To manage and utilize runoff for useful purpose
(c) To minimize soil erosion
(d) All of the above
Ans: d
118. Amount of runoff from a given watershed for a given rainfall event depends on
(a) Type of soil
(b) Drainage density
(c) Land use
(d) All of the above
Ans: d
119. Rate and volume of runoff per unit area generally decreases with
(a) Increase in watershed area
(b) Decrease in watershed area
(c) Increase in slope
(d) Removal of vegetation
Ans: a
120. Which shape of watershed of a given area is likely to generate more runoff?
(a) Long and narrow
(b) Square/compact
(c) Rectangular with larger side along the slope
(d) None
Ans: b
121. Drainage density is defined as ratio of
(a) Total length of all stream and catchments area
(b) Total number of all stream and catchments area
(c) Total number of all stream and total length of all stream
(d) Total length of all stream and total number of all stream
Ans: a
122. Total number of class in land capability classification scheme
(a) 4
(b) 6
(c) 8
(d) 10
Ans: c
123. Number of classes suitable for cultivation are
(a) 4
(b) 6
(c) 8
(d) 10
Ans: a
124. Which of the following class is suitable for grazing/orchards?
(a) Class II
(b) Class III
(c) Class IV
(d) All of the above
Ans: d
125. Colour in which class IV is shown on land capability classification map
(a) Dark green
(b) Red
(c) Blue
(d) Purple
Ans: c
126. Colour in which class V is shown on land capability classification map
(a) Dark green
(b) Red
(c) Blue
(d) Purple
Ans: a
127. When two fair six-sided die are tossed, what is the probability of getting a sum e” 8?
(a) 1/2
(b) 1/6
(c) 5/12
(d) 13/18
(e) 5/18
Ans: c
128. To test whether or not two population variances are equal, the appropriate distribution is:
(a) Z distribution
(b) Chi-square distribution
(c) F distribution
(d) T distribution with n1+ n2) degrees of freedom
(e) None of the above
Ans: c
129. Using two independent samples, two population means are compared to determine if a difference exists. The number in the first sample is 15 and the number in the second sample is 12. How many degrees of freedom are associated with the critical t-value?
(a) 27
(b) 26
(c) 25
(d) 14 & 11
(e) None of the above.
Ans: c
130. Approximately what percentage of scores fall within one standard deviation of the mean in a normal distribution?
(a) 34%
(b) 95%
(c) 99%
(d) 68%
(e) 5%
Ans: d
131. Given a p-value of 0.065, and using the customary a = 5%, the conclusion should be:
(a) Do not reject the alternate hypothesis
(b) Reject the null hypothesis
(c) Accept the alternate hypothesis
(d) Do not reject the null hypothesis
(e) Not enough information to determine
Ans: d
132. What is the probability that a normal random variable with mean 15 and standard deviation 5 will have a value of exactly 25?
(a) 0.0228
(b) 0.0456
(c) 0.9772
(d) 0.0000
(e) 1.0000
Ans: d
133. Which of the following will give a more “accurate” representation of the population from which a sample has been taken?
(a) A large sample based on the convenience sampling technique
(b) A small sample based on simple random sampling
(c) A large sample based on simple random sampling
(d) A small cluster sample
(e) All the above will give same accurate representation of population mean
Ans: c
134. If a distribution is skewed to the left, then it is_______
(a) Negatively skewed
(b) Positively skewed
(c) Symmetrically skewed
(d) Symmetrical
(e) Platykurtic
Ans: a
135. The type of sampling in which each member of the population selected for the sample is returned to the population before the next member is selected is called____________
(a) Sampling without replacement
(b) Sampling with replacement
(c) Simple random sampling
(d) Systematic sampling
(e) Cluster sampling
Ans: b
136. Which of the following is not a type of nonrandom sampling?
(a) Cluster sampling
(b) Convenience sampling
(c) Quota sampling
(d) Purposive sampling
(e) They are all type of nonrandom sampling
Ans: a
137. _______ is a set of elements taken from a larger population according to certain rules.
(a) Sample
(b) Population
(c) Statistic
(d) Element
(e) Parameter
Ans: a
138. If you drew all possible samples from some population, calculated the mean for each of the samples, and constructed a line graph showing the shape of the distribution) based on all of those means, what would you have?
(a) A population distribution
(b) A sample distribution
(c) A sampling distribution
(d) A parameter distribution
(e) A poison distribution
Ans: c
139. What does it mean when you calculate a 95% confidence interval?
(a) The process you used will capture the true parameter 95% of the time in the long run
(b) You can be “95% confident” that your interval will include the population parameter
(c) You can be “5% confident” that your interval will not include the population parameter
(d) Only ‘B’ and ‘C’ are true
(e) All of the above ‘ A’, ‘B’ & ‘C’) statements are true
Ans: e
140. What would happen other things equal) to a confidence interval if you calculated a 99 percent confidence interval rather than a 95 percent confidence interval?
(a) It will be narrower
(b) It will not change
(c) The sample size will increase
(d) It will become wider
(e) The sample size will decrease
Ans: d
141. When two fair six-sided die are tossed, what is the expected value of the sum of the faces?
(a) 6
(b) 7
(c) 5
(d) 4
(e) 12
Ans: b
142. In a grouped frequency distribution, the intervals should be what?
(a) Mutually exclusive
(b) Exhaustive
(c) Both A and B
(d) Neither A nor B
(e) All the above
Ans: c
143. Which of the following is second largest producer and exporter of coffee in the world?
(a) India
(b) Japan
(c) Bhutan
(d) Iran
Ans. (a)
144. Which of the following is second largest producer and exporter of spices in the world?
(a) China
(b) India
(c) America
(d) Netherland
Ans. (b)
145. The second largest producer and exporter of cashew in the world is:
(a) China
(b) India
(c) Bhutan
(d) Pakistan
Ans. (b)
146. The country has recorded highest productivity (25.4 tonnes/ha) in the case of in the world.
(a) Wheat
(b) Grapes
(c) Mustard
(d) Banana
Ans. (b)
147. India’s arable land area of 159.7 million hectares (394.6 million acres) is the_________ largest in the world.
(a) First
(b) Second
(c) Third
d) None of the above
Ans. (b)
148. India has gross irrigated crop area of 82.6 million hectares (215 6 million acres) which is the in the world.
(a) Lowest
(b) Largest
(c) Second largest
(d) None of the above
Ans. (b)
149. India is one of the world’s five largest producers of
(a) Wheat and oilseed
(b) Livestock and poultry meat
(c) Tea production
(d) All of the above
Ans. (b)
150. About 90% of the total production of Gram comes from which five states?
(a) Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, Rajasthan, Haryana and Maharashtra
(b) Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Rajasthan, Haryana and Maharashtra
(c) Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Rajasthan, Himachal Pradesh and Tamil Nadu
(d) Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Kerala, Haryana and Tamil Nadu
Ans. (b)
151. Tocopherols prevent the oxidation of
a) Vitamin A
b) Vitamin D
c) Vitamin E
d) Vitamin C
Ans. (a)
152. Creatinuria is caused due to the deficiency of
a) Vitamin B
b) Vitamin K
c) Vitamin E
d) Vitamin C
Ans. (c)
153. In TCA cycle, oxalosuccinate is converted to α-ketoglutarate by the enzyme:
a) Phosphofructokinage
b) Isocitrate dehydrogenase
c) Phosphohexose isomerase
d) Succinase
Ans. (b)
154. Which of the following is required by enzyme – ketoglutarate dehydrogenase in the citric acid cycle?
a) Lipoate
b) Folate
c) Pyridoxine
d) Inositol
Ans. (a)
155. Phosphofructokinase key enzyme in glycolysis is inhibited by
a) Citrate and ATP
b) AMP
c) ADP
d) ATP
Ans. (a)
156. One of the enzymes regulating glycolysis is
a) Phosphofructokinase
b) Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase
c) Aconitase
d) Succinase
Ans. (a)
157. Hexokinase is inhibited in an allosteric manner by
a) Glucose – 6 – Phosphate
b) Glucose-1, 6 – diphosphate
c) Fructose – 6 – phosphate
d) Fructose-1, 6 – biphosphate
Ans. (a)
158. A reaction considered an isomerisation is
a) Glucose 6-Phosphate fructose 6 phosphate
b) 3-Phosphoglycerate 2-phosphoglycerate
c) 2-phosphoglycerate phosphoenolpyruvate
d) Glucose 1-6- diphosphate
Ans. (a)
159. Xylulose-5-phosphate serves as a donar of active glycolaldehyde, the acceptor is
a) Erythrose 4 – phosphate
b) Ribose 5 – phosphate
c) Fructose 6 – phosphate
d) Glucose 7 – phosphate
Ans. (a)
160. Pentose phosphate pathway is of significance because it
a) Generates NADPH for reductive synthesis
b) Regenerates glucose 6-phosphate
c) Generates fructose 6-phosphate
d) Forms glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate
Ans. (a)
161. The pentose phosphate pathway protects erythrocytes against hemolysis by assisting the enzyme:
a) Fumerase
b) Aconitase
c) Glutathionic peroxidase
d) Cytochrome oxidase
Ans. (c)
162. The most important symptom of wilt of cotton (caused by Fusarium oxysporum sp. vasinfectum) is:
a) Necrosis
b) Yellowing of tissues
c) Discoloration of tissues and plugging of vessels by hyphae
d) All of these
Ans. (c)
163. Wilt disease of sugarcane was reported for the first time in India in the state of:
a) Punjab
b) Tamil Nadu
c) Bihar
d) Uttar Pradesh
Ans. (c)
164. The pathogen responsible for charcoal rot of soybean is:
a) Aschchyta rabiei
b) Macrophomina phaseolina
c) Rhizoctonia solani
d) Penicillium
Ans. (b)
165. The incidence of black scurf of potato is more in:
a) Sandy soil
b) Clay soil
c) Alluvial soil
d) Loam soil
Ans. (a)
166. The attack of sheath blight of rice (caused by Rhizoctonia solani) is more during:
a) Germination
b) Active tillering stage
c) Flowering
d) All of these
Ans. (b)
167. Rice blast pathogen perfect stage is:
a) Pyricularia oryzae
b) Magnaporthe grisea
c) Helminthosporium
d) Rhizoctonia
Ans. (b)
168. Smut of maize is caused by:
a) Ustilago tritici
b) Ustilago maydis
c) Ustilago hordei
d) None of these
Ans. (b)
169. Sterility mosaic disease of pigeonpea is spread by:
a) Virus
b) Aphid
c) Whitefly
d) Mites
Ans. (d)
170. Downey mildew is caused by:
a) Perenospora pisi
b) Albugo Candida
c) Erysiphae polygoni
d) None of these
Ans. (a)
171. If the probability of A is 0.45 and the probability of the intersection of A and B is 0.15, then the probability that B will occur given that A has occurred is:
(a) 3.00
(b) 1.00
(c) 1/3
(d) 1/9
(e) 0.675
Ans: c
172. The symptom of red rot of sugarcane is mostly found on:
a) Stem
b) Root
c) Leaf
d) Arrow
Ans. (a)
173. The advantages of handling packages on pallets are
a) Labour cost in handling is greatly reduced
b) Transport cost is reduced
c) Goods are protected and damage is reduced
d) All the above
Ans. (d)
174. Pallets are widely used for
a) the transport of fruit & vegetable packages
b) for transport of rice
c) for storage of wheat
d) for storage of liquid material
Ans. (a)
175. What is the importance of Ventilation of Packages?
a) Airflow through the ventilation holes allows hot fruit or vegetable to slowly cool and avoid the buildup of heat produced by the commodity in respiration.
b) Holes are also important in cooling the fruit when the packages are placed in a cold storage, especially with forced air- cooling.
c) Ventilation holes improve the dispersal of ethylene produced
d) All the above
Ans. (d)
176. Function of Cushioning Materials is
a) to fix the commodities inside the packages and prevent them from mixing about in relation to each other and the package itself, when there is a vibration or impact
b) to identity the product
c) to protect the material from theft
d) to protect the material from moisture
Ans. (a)
177. Modified atmosphere packaging is
a) The method for extending the shelf-life of perishable and semi-perishable food products by altering the relative proportions of atmospheric gases that surround the produce
b) Plastic packaging
c) Package with steel sheet
d) To cool the product for increasing the self-life of product
Ans. (a)
178. Which of the following is correct about Controlled Atmosphere (CA)?
a) It is to a storage atmosphere that is different from the normal atmosphere in its composition, wherein the component gases are precisely adjusted to specific concentrations and maintained throughout the storage and distribution of the perishable foods.
b) It relies on the continuous measurement of the composition of the storage atmosphere and injection of the appropriate gases or gas mixtures into it, if and when needed.
c) This system requires sophisticated instruments to monitor the gas levels and is therefore practical only for refrigerated bulk storage or shipment of commodities in large containers
d) All the above are correct
Ans. (d)
179. Which of the following is correct about Modified Atmospheric Packaging (MAP)?
a) Modified atmosphere conditions are created inside the packages by the commodity itself and / or by active modification
b) Commodity generated or passive MA (Modified Atmosphere) is evolved as a consequence of the commodity’s respiration
c) If the shelf life of a commodity at 20- 25°C is one day, then by employing MAP, it will get ten times more
d) Both a and b are correct
Ans. (d)
180. Choose the correct statement about RTS:
a) It is prepared from fruit juices which must have atleast 10 per cent fruit juice and 10 per cent total sugar
b) It is prepared from fruit juices which must have atleast 50 per cent fruit juice and 50 per cent total sugar
c) It is prepared from fruit juices which must have atleast 80 per cent fruit juice and 20 per cent total sugar
d) It is prepared from fruit juices which must have atleast 70 per cent fruit juice and 30 per cent total sugar
Ans. (a)
181. Post harvest technology is inter-disciplinary “Science and Technique” applied to agricultural produce after harvest for its
a) Protection and conservation
b) Processing and packaging
c) Distribution and marketing
d) All the above
Ans. (d)
182. A community development blocks passes through
a) 2 stages of development
b) 1 stages of development
c) 4 stages of development
d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
183. Balwant Rai Mehta committee stimulated a active consideration of ________through democratic bodies
a) Centralization
b) Mobilization
c) Stabilization
d) Decentraization
Ans. (d)
184. Basic operational unit for rural development if India is:
a) Village
b) District
c) Tehsil
d) Block
Ans. (d)
185. Community Development programmes were introduced in India for rural development:
a) In early 40’s
b) In early 50’s
c) In early 60’s
d) In early 70’s
Ans. (b)
186. For rural development, a conducive ecology and environment is essential because:
a) Rural life styles have close links with nature and its resources
b) Rural houses are mostly unhygienic
c) Rural people do not care for ecology
d) None of the above
Ans. (a)
187. Fourth FYP was started in the year:
a) 1965
b) 1966
c) 1969
d) 1967
Ans. (c)
188. In India there are about village Panchayats.
a) 1, 15,000
b) 2, 16,000
c) 5, 00,000
d) 75, 7500
Ans. (b)
189. Facilitating micro credit through self-help groups among the poor is now a well-accepted method of
a) poverty alleviation
b) agriculture development
c) family development
d) All the above
Ans. (a)
190. Total number of KVKs under ICAR in India (as on Nov. 2017)
a) 680
b) 698
c) 785
d) 900
Ans. (a)
191. Which of the following is / are the objectives of Krishi Vigyan Kendras (KVKs)?
a) Planning and conducting survey of the operational area in order to prepare the resource inventory with special reference to identifying the training needs of the farming community.
b) Planning and conducting production- oriented, need-based short and long duration training courses both on campus as well as in the villages for various target groups with priority on the weaker and the poor.
c) Developing and organizing non-formal educational programmes by way of field days, farm visits, farmers fair, radio talk, Farm Science clubs etc. as the follow up information support to training courses
d) All the above
Ans. (d)
192. The highest Krishi Vigyan Kendra (KVK) of India was set-up at
a) Nyoma, Leh district of Jammu and Kashmir
b) Andaman and Nicobar
c) Lakshadweep
d) Sikkim
Ans. (a)
193. The activities of the KVK include
a) technology assessment
b) refinement and transfer
c) aiming to bridge the gap between the technology developed at the research institutions and its adoption at the field level by the farmers through demonstration of technology / products etc
d) All the above
Ans. (d)
194. Planning Commission allocated Rs.___________ specifically for the establishment of new KVKs during Xth plan period,
a) 100 crores
b) 100 crores
c) 400 crores
d) 500 crores
Ans. (d)
195. The credit for the success of Krishi Vigyan Kendras (KVK) goes to—
a) Dr. R. S. Paroda
b) Dr. Chandrika Prasad
c) Dr. Mohan Singh Mehta
d) Dr. Mangla Rai
Ans. (d)
196. Which of the following plays an important role in economic empowerment of women?
a) Self-Help Groups (SHGs)
b) NGOs
c) KVKs
d) None of the above
Ans. (a)
197. A Self-Help Group is a small voluntary association of
a) Rich people
b) Poor people
c) Middle class people
d) None of the above
Ans. (b)
198. What is the main function of seed drill?
a) To carry seeds
b) To meter seeds
c) To deposits seeds in furrow
d) All are correct
Ans. (d)
199. Seed drill are used for sowing:
a) Small seeds
b) Bolder seeds
c) Germinating seeds
d) Seeds in irrigated land
Ans. (a)
200. Planters are used for sowing:
a) Small seeds
b) Bolder seeds
c) Germinating seeds
d) Seedlings
Ans. (b)
201. Which of the following is/are the objectives of watershed management?
a) To protect conserve and improve the land resources for efficient and sustained production
b) To protect and enhance water resources
c) To utilize the natural local resources for improving agriculture and allied occupation
d) All of the above
Ans. (d)