Compilation of 125+ Agricultural Engineering MCQs highly useful for cracking Pre PG (Ag) Test, JRF, SRS, ARS, NET, SET, Ph.D, ASRB, IRMA, UPSC, NARBARD, Cooperative Bank, P.O, BEd. MANAGE and allied Agricultural Exam!
1. Which of the following is not a part of Instruments used for setting right angles in chain survey?
(a) Cross staff
(b) Optical square
(c) Both
(d) None
Ans: c
2. Which of the following is correct
(a) 10 guntur s chains -1 furlong
(b) 80 guntur s chains-1 mile
(c) 10 square guntur s chains – 1 acre
(d) All
Ans: d
3. _______ is usually an imaginary level surface or arbitrarily assumed level surface, from which vertical distances are measured.
(a) Datum
(b) Elevation
(c) Bench Mark (B.M.)
(d) Line of collimation
(e) Axis of telescope
Ans: a
4. ______ is the vertical distance above or below the datum.
(a) Datum
(b) Elevation
(c) Bench Mark (B.M.)
(d) Line of collimation
(e) Axis of telescope
Ans: b
5. ________ is a fixed point of reference of known or assumed elevation with respect to which other elevations are calculated.
(a) Datum
(b) Elevation
(c) Bench Marie (B.M.)
(d) Line of collimation
(e) Axis of telescope
Ans: c
6. ______ is the line joining the intersection of the cross hairs to the optical centre of the object glass and its continuation.
(a) Datum
(b) Elevation
(c) Bench Mark (B.M.)
(d) Line of collimation
(e) Axis of Telescope
Ans: d
7. ________ is a line joining the optical centre of the object glass to the center of the eye piece.
(a) Datum
(b) Elevation
(c) Bench Mark (B.M.)
(d) Line of collimation
(e) Axis of telescope
Ans: e
8. _________ are established with very high precision at intervals all over the country by survey of India department.
(a) GT.S (Great Trigonometrical Survey) bench mark
(b) Permanent bench mark
(c) Arbitrary bench marks
(d) Temporary bench marks
Ans: a
9. For a trapezoidal section contour bund, if bottom width is 120 cm, top width is 30 cm, bund height is 30 cm; find the side slope in terms of horizontal: vertical
(a) 15:1
(b) 1:1.5
(c) 2:1
(d) 0.5:1cm
Ans: a
10. Free board is provided in contour bund for the purpose of
(a) Storing extra water than designed
(b) To protect bund from wave action of water
(c) To grow crop on bunds
(d) None of the above
Ans: b
11. A frame is used for
(a) Measuring degree of slope
(b) Marking contour line
(c) To measure elevation difference
(d) To estimate runoff from small catchments
Ans: b
12. Spacing between contour bunds depends on
(a) Amount of rainfall
(b) Soil infiltration
(c) Land slope
(d) All of the above
Ans: d
13. Horizontal interval between two consecutive bund HI) =
(a) VI* slope %)/100
(b) VI* 100/slope%)
(c) VI * 100/slope %)
(d) Slope %)* 100/VI
Ans: c
14. Runoff volume of L m wide strip between two contour bunds with horizontal interval H, and effective rainfall Re) can be computed by
(a) Re*H*L/100
(b) Re*H/100*L
(c) Re*100/H*L
(d) Re/L*H
Ans: c
15. In common practice of bunding with recommended parameter and suitability, area lost to bund
(a) 1 percent
(b) 6 percent
(c) 16 percent
(d) 36 percent
Ans: a
16. Compute the earth work of a 50 m length of contour bund with 50 cm height, 30 cm top width, 1:1 side slope.
(a) 2.0 cum
(b) 20 cum
(c) 50 cum
(d) 25 cum
Ans: b
17. Cross section area of bund with height 50 cm top width 30cm side slope 1:1 is
(a) 2sq m
(b) 0.4 sq m
(c) 0.2 sq m
(d) 0.54 sq m
Ans: b
18. Spacing between graded bunds depend on
(a) Type of soils
(b) Rainfall
(c) Vegetative cover
(d) All of the above
Ans: d
19. Contour bunds and graded bunds are designed considering rainfall of ____ year return period
(a) 1
(b) 10
(c) 50
(d) 100
Ans: b
20. Grassed waterways are constructed
(a) Along the contour
(b) Across the contour
(c) Top half along the contour and lower half across the contour
(d) Along ridge line of watershed
Ans: b
21. Graded bunds are constructed
(a) Exactly along the contour
(b) Exactly along the slope
(c) Along the contour with slight grade
(d) Along filed boundary
Ans: c
22. Bench terracing is recommended in area with slope
(a) 2 to 5%
(b) 8 to 33 %
(c) 2 to 10%
(d) 1 to 15 %
Ans: b
23. Formula for computing discharge through rectangular weir with crest length L and head H is
(a) Q=1.7LH3/2
(b) Q=1.7L2H3/2
(c) Q=(LH)2.7
(d) 7.1 LH
Ans: a
24. In a dam of water storage structure, HFL stands for
(a) Head Flow Level
(b) Highest Flood Level
(c) Heavy Flow Load
(d) Highest Foundation level
Ans: b
25. Volume of water stored below outlet level in a water harvesting structure is called
(a) Effective storage
(b) Dead storage
(c) Highest flood Level
(d) None of the above
Ans: b
26. Graded bund are constructed in an area with
(a) Rainfall > 600mm
(b) Soils with poor permeability
(c) Slope between 2 to 6 %
(d) All of the above
Ans: d
27. For designing a channel which of the following formula is used
(a) Bernoulli’s theorem
(b) Rational formula
(c) Manning’s formula
(d) None of the above
Ans: c
28. If the sample size is cut to 1/4 of its present size, all else being the same, the confidence interval will become:
(a) Half as wide
(b) Four times as wide
(c) Will not change
(d) Two times as wide
(e) Not enough information to determine
Ans: d
29. A sample of midterm grades for five students showed the following results: 72,65,82,90 and 76. The following statements are made:
(a) The average midterm grade for the sample of five students is 77.
(b) The average midterm grade for all students who took the exam is 77.
(c) An estimate of the average midterm grade for all students who took the exam is 77.
(d) More than half of the students who take this exam will score between 70 and 85.
(e) If five other students are included in the sample, their grades will be between 65 and 90.
Which of the following statements are correct, and which should be challenged as being too generalized?
(a) i) & ii) are correct.
(b) i) & iii) are correct
(c) i), ii) & v) are correct.
(d) ii), iii) & v) are correct.
(e) All i), ii), iii), iv) & v) are correct.
Ans: b
30. A fair coin is tossed five times. What is the probability that it lands tails up at least once?
(a) 1/32
(b) 5/32
(c) 4/5
(d) 1-0.5)4 0.5)1
(e) 27/32
Ans: d
31. When two fair six-sided die are tossed, what is the probability of getting a sum greater than 8?
(a) 1/32
(b) 1/6
(c) 7/12
(d) 13/18
(e) 5/18
Ans: e
32. A distribution that is relatively flat and wide is said to be:
(a) Skewed to the right
(b) Symmetric
(c) Platykurtic
(d) Kurtosis
(e) None of the above
Ans: c
33. The following are the grades a professor gave on the first test in a statistics class:
52,90,88,61,75,82,75,85,88, and 86. What was the median score on this test?
(a) 82.0
(b) 82.5
(c) 78.5
(d) 88.0
(e) 83.5
Ans: e
34. A shoe store manager has sales data of shoe sizes for the last month’s sales. Which measure of central tendency should the manager use, if the manager is interested in the most sellable size?
(a) Mean
(b) Median
(c) Mode
(d) Standard deviation
(e) Interquartile range
Ans: e
35. The mean weight of three large sized seeds is 20 grams. The weights of two of the seeds are 15 grams and 18 grams. What is the weight of the third stone?
(a) 16 grams
(b) 10 grams
(c) 28 grams
(d) 27 grams
(e) Not enough information to determine the weight of the third seed
Ans: d
36. According to demarcation given by Planning Commission, Uttar Pradesh is located in
(a) Upper Gangetic Plains Region
(b) Southern Plateau and Hills Region
(c) Western Dry Region
(d) West Coast Plains and Ghat Region
Ans. (a)
37. According to demarcation given by Planning Commission, Uttar Pradesh is located in
(a) Middle Gangetic Plains Region
(b) Upper Gangetic Plains Region
(c) Central Plateau and Hills Region
(d) All the above regions are present in Uttar Pradesh
Ans. (d)
38. Which of the following objectives for agro- climatic regional planning has laid down by Planning Commission of India (1989)?
(a) Attempt a broad demand-supply balance of major commodities at the national level but based on a careful analysis of potential and prospects of various zones
(b) Maximise net income of producers
(c) Provide the framework for the scientific and sustainable use of our natural resources, particularly land, water and forests, in the long run
(d) All the above
Ans. (d)
39. The Planning Commission of India (1989) has laid down __________ objectives for agro- climatic regional planning
(a) 6
(b) 4
(c) 8
(d) 9
Ans. (b)
40. The most appropriate criterion of irrigation in wheat crop is
(a) Sowing stage
(b) Physiological or growth stage
(c) During maturity stage
d) None of the above
Ans. (b)
41. On an exhausted mineral soil, dwarf wheat and tall wheat shows appreciable response
(a) Up to 120 and 60 kg N per hectare respectively
(b) Up to 80 and 60 kg N per hectare respectively
(c) Up to 110 and 130 kg N per hectare respectively
(d) Up to 150 and 160 kg N per hectare respectively
Ans. (a)
42. In wheat crop phosphorus imparts a great influence on
(a) Growth
(b) Development
(c) Both a and b
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
43. Application of____________ is recommended at the time of sowing, depending on the initial soil value
(a) 70-90 kg P2O5 per hectare
(b) 30-35 kg P2O5 per hectare
(c) 40-60 kg P2O5 per hectare
(d) 100-105 kg P2O5 per hectare
Ans. (c)
44. Gladiolus is a
(a) Perennial
(b) Annual
(c) Biannual
(d) None of the above
Ans. (a)
45. Which of the following is correct about Gladiolus?
(a) Plant gladiolus bulbs in the spring once danger of frost has passed and the soil has warmed
(b) It takes about 90 days from the time gladioli are planted to root, grow, bloom, and store enough energy for the next season
(c) Gladioli like well-drained, light soil and full sun
(d) All the above
Ans. (d)
46. Which of the following is/are the pests of Gladiolus?
(a) Gladiolus corm rot (Fusarium)
(b) Gray mold
(c) Spider mites
(d) All the above
Ans. (d)
47. India is one of the world’s largest producer of
(a) White rice and brown rice
(b) Maize
(c) Mustard
(d) Wheat
Ans. (a)
48. Which of the following is not the principle of organic agriculture?
a) Principle of care
b) Principle of ecology
c) Principle of fairness
d) Principle of productivity
Ans. (d)
49. Which of the following is correct justification about Principle of health of organic agriculture?
a) This principle roots organic agriculture within living ecological systems. It states that production is to be based on ecological processes, and recycling.
b) Organic farming, pastoral and wild harvest systems should fit the cycles and ecological balances in nature. These cycles are universal but their operation is site-specific. Organic management must be adapted to local conditions, ecology, culture and scale.
c) Natural and environmental resources that are used for production and consumption should be managed in a way that is socially and ecologically just and should be held in trust for future generations.
d) The role of organic agriculture, whether in farming, processing, distribution, or consumption, is to sustain and enhance the health of ecosystems and organisms from the smallest in the soil to human beings.
Ans. (d)
50. Which of the following is correct justification about Principle of ecology of organic agriculture?
a) Organic Agriculture should build on relationships that ensure fairness with regard to the common environment and life opportunities.
b) This principle roots organic agriculture within living ecological systems. It states that production is to be based on ecological processes, and recycling.
c) Organic farming, pastoral and wild harvest systems should fit the cycles and ecological balances in nature. These cycles are universal but their operation is site-specific. Organic management must be adapted to local conditions, ecology, culture and scale.
d) Natural and environmental resources that are used for production and consumption should be managed in a way that is socially and ecologically just and should be held in trust for future generations
Ans. (c)
51. Steps to a Successful Organic Transition is/ are
a) Understand the basics of organic agriculture and the organic farming standards
b) Identify resources that will help you
c) Plan your transition carefully
d) All the above
Ans. (d)
52. Which of the following is / are steps to a Successful Organic Transition?
a) Understand your soils and ways to improve them
b) Identify the crops or livestock suited for your situation
c) Design good crop rotations
d) All the above
Ans. (d)
53. Segregation of Mendelian factors (no linkage, no crossing over) occurs during
a) Anaphase I
b) Anaphase II
c) Pachytene
d) Zygotene
Ans. (a)
54. In a cross between AABB x aabb, the ratio of F2 genotypes between AABB, AaBB, Aabb and aabb would be
a) 9:3:3:1
b) 3:3:3:2
c) 1:2:2:1
d) 9:1:1:1.
Ans. (c)
55. A gene pair hides the effect of another. The phenomenon is
a) Epitasis
b) Crossing over
c) Mutation
d) Incomplete dominance
Ans. (c)
56. An allele is dominant if it is expressed in
a) Both homozygous and heterozygous states
b) Second generation
c) First generation
d) Hybrid generation
Ans. (a)
57. A child of O-group has B-group father. The genotype of father will be
a) IAI°
b) IAIA
c) IAIB
d) IBI°.
Ans. (d)
58. Mendel studied inheritance of seven pairs of traits in Pea which can have 21 possible combinations.
If you are told that in one of these combinations, independent assortment is not observed in later studies, your reaction will be
a) Independent assortment principle may be wrong
b) Mendel might not have studied all the combinations
c) It is due to mutation
d) It is due to crossing over
Ans. (b)
59. A polygenic inheritance in human beings is
a) skin colour
b) phenylketonuria
c) rickets
d) sickle cell anaemia.
Ans. (a)
60. A vertical selection of soil body which shows different layers is known as:
a) Soil horizons
b) Soil profile
c) Regolith
d) Parent material
Ans. (d)
61. A well-developed soil have:
a) A horizon
b) B horizon
c) C horizon
d) All of the above
Ans. (d)
62. Absorbed hydrogen and aluminium are largely responsible for:
a) Soil acidity
b) Soil alkalinity
c) Neutralinity
d) None of the above
Ans. (a)
63. According to “Universal Soils Loss Equation”, the factor on which ratio of erosion depends are:
a) Rainfall, soil erodibility and slope
b) Rainfall, soil erodibility, slope length, slope gradient, crop management, erosion control practice
c) Rainfall, wind velocity, crop management
d) Soil erodibility, soil type, crop management
Ans. (b)
64. According to land capability classification, the soils which are not suitable for crop cultivation belong to:
a) Class I
b) Class III
c) Class IV
d) Class VIII
Ans. (d)
65. Alluvial soils are rich in:
a) K2O, P2Os and Lime
b) N
c) Fe, A1
d) Si, Cu
Ans. (a)
66. Amount of K in soil plough layer is about:
a) 1,000-10,000 kg/ha
b) 10,000-70,000 kg/ha
c) 5,000-6,000 kg/ha
d) 8,000-10,000 kg/ha
Ans. (b)
67. Plant hormones are generally produced in tissues.
a) cortical (cortex)
b) epidermal
c) meristem
d) vascular
Ans. (c)
68.The Latin root words meaning “about” and “day” are the basis for the term
a) auxin
b) tropism
c) nastic
d) circadian
Ans. (d)
69. Which statement about plant hormones is NOT true?
a) Plant hormones include at least one form that is a gas.
b) Each naturally occurring hormone has a specific chemical structure.
c) Hormones are among the principal internal regulators of plant growth.
d) All known growth regulators of plant activities are chemicals produced naturally in plants.
Ans. (d)
70. Which of these plant hormones is a growth inhibitor?
a) Abscisic acid
b) Auxin
c) Cytokinin
d) Gibberellin
Ans. (a)
71. Which of these plant hormones was studied in the 1880s by Charles and Francis Darwin in experiments on phototropism?
a) Abscisic acid
b) Auxin
c) Cytokinin
d) Ethylene
Ans. (b)
72. Which plant hormone was discovered in infected rice seedlings that grew extremely tall and slender?
a) Abscisic acid
b) Auxin
c) Cytokinin
d) Ethylene
Ans. (d)
73. Which plant hormone, developing in an apical bud, inhibits the growth of lower axillary buds?
a) Abscisic acid
b) Auxin
c) Cytokinin
d) Ethylene
Ans. (b)
74. Indoleacetic acid (IAA) is the most commonly occurring form of which plant hormone?
a) Abscisic acid
b) Auxin
c) Cytokinin
d) Ethylene
Ans. (b)
75. Bees carry pollen back to their hive in
a) Antenna
b) Pollen basket
c) Abdomen
d) Gut
Ans. (c)
76. How many phases are their in a bee life?
a) 4
b) 3
c) 5
d) 6
Ans. (b)
77. The antenna of a honey bee serves
a) For touch and hearing
b) For touch and taste
c) For touch and smell
d) Four touch and sight
Ans. (c)
78. American foul brood disease is found only in Europe and North America. The statement is true or false
a) True
b) False
c) It is case specific
d) No such disease occurs in bees
Ans. (b)
79. When bee wax is melted it will _______
a) Raise to the top of a container containing water and honey
b) Sink to the bottom of the container with water and honey
c) Float above water but not the honey
d) None of the above
Ans. (a)
80. A strong colony bee should have______
a) 10,000 bees
b) 30,000 bees
c) 45,000 bees
d) 60,000 bees
Ans. (d)
81. Ocelli is
a) Eyes
b) Antennae
c) Feet
d) Hairs
Ans. (a)
82. Two sugars which differ from one another only in configuration around a single carbon atom are termed
a) Epimers
b) Isomers
c) Optical isomers
d) Monomers
Ans. (a)
83. Isomers differing as a result of variations in configuration of the —OH and —H on carbon atoms 2, 3 and 4 of glucose are known as
a) Epimers
b) Steroisomers
c) Optical isomers
d) Anomers
Ans. (a)
84. The most important epimer of glucose is
a) Arabinose
b) Maltose
c) Galactose
d) Raffinose
Ans. (c)
85. α – D – glucose and β – D – glucose are
a) Stereoisomers
b) Anomers
c) Epimers
d) Keto-aldo pairs
Ans. (b)
86. The carbohydrate reserved in human body is
a) Starch
b) Glucose
c) Glycogen
d) Inulin
Ans. (c)
87. Compounds having the same structural formula but differing in spatial configuration are known as
a) Stereoisomers
b) Allotropes
c) Optical isomers
d) Isotopes
Ans. (a)
88. In glucose the orientation of the —H and — OH groups around the carbon atom 5 adjacent to the terminal primary alcohol carbon determines
a) D or L series
b) Dextro or levorotatory
c) alpha and beta – anomers
d) Epimers
Ans. (a)
89. Retinol is transported in blood bound to
a) Aporetinol binding protein
b) Alpha 2-Globulin
c) Beta – Globulin
d) Albumin
Ans. (a)
90. The normal serum concentration of vitamin A in mg/100 ml is
a) 150- 160
b) 15-60
c) 100- 150
d) 25-30
Ans. (b)
91. One manifestation of vitamin A deficiency is
a) Painful joints
b) Night blindness
c) Loss of memory
d) Tiredness
Ans. (b)
92. Deficiency of Vitamin A causes
a) Xeropthalmia
b) Hypoprothrombinemia
c) Scurvy
d) Rickets
Ans. (a)
93. An important function of vitamin A is to
a) act as coenzyme for a few enzymes
b) play an integral role in protein synthesis
c) prevent hemorrhages
d) maintain the integrity of epithelial tissue
Ans. (d)
94. Retinal is a component of
a) Iodopsin
b) Rhodopsin
c) Cobalamin
d) Fumaric acid
Ans. (b)
95. Retinoic acid participates in the synthesis of
a) Iodopsin
b) Rhodopsin
c) Glycoprotein
d) Cardiolipin
Ans. (c)
96. On exposure to light rhodopsin forms
a) All trans – retinal
b) Cis – retinal
c) Fumaric acid
d) Malic acid
Ans. (a)
97. Carr – Price reaction is used to detect
a) Vitamin A
b) Vitamin B
c) Ascorbic acid
d) Vitamin K
Ans. (a)
98. Vitamin necessary for CoA synthesis is:
a) Pantothenic acid
b) Vitamin C
c) Vitamin A
d) Vitamin D
Ans. (a)
99. The pancreatic amylase activity is increased in the presence of
a) Sodium salt
b) Bile salt
c) Potassium salt
d) Calcium ions
Ans. (b)
100. A carbohydrate which cannot be digested in human gut is
a) Cellulose
b) Fructose
c) Glucose
d) Maltose
Ans. (a)
101. The sugar absorbed by facilitated diffusion and requiring Na independent transporter is
a) Maltose
b) Fructose
c) Glycogen
d) Galactose
Ans. (b)
102. In the intestine the rate of absorption is highest for
a) Glucose and galactose
b) Fructose and arabinose
c) Maltose and pentose
d) Mannose and rafinose
Ans. (a)
103. Formation of succinyl-CoA from a- Ketoglutarate is inhibited by
a) Calcium
b) Arsenite
c) Chloride
d) Potassium
Ans. (b)
104. The number of ATP molecules generated for each turn of the citric acid cycle is
a) 18
b) 12
c) 6
d) 36
Ans. (b)
105. Oxidation of one molecule of glucose yields
a) 18 ATP
b) 36 ATP
c) 24 ATP
d) 38 ATP
Ans. (d)
106. Which of the following intermediates of metabolism can be both a precursor and a product of glucose?
a) Lactate
b) Pyruvate
c) Alanine
d) Acetyl-CoA
Ans. (a)
107. Which of the following enzyme does not contain zinc?
a) Acid Phosphatase
b) Alkaline Phosphatase
c) Carbonic anhydrase
d) All of these
Ans. (a)
108. Which of the following is not iron-containing enzyme?
a) Carbonic anhydrase
b) Catalase
c) Peroxidase
d) Cytochrome oxidase
Ans. (a)
109. Biotin is a coenzyme for
a) Glutamate pyruvate transminase
b) Pyruvate carboxylase
c) PEP carboxykinase
d) Pyruvate kinase
Ans. (b)
110. Enzymes accelerate the rate of reactions by
a) Increasing the equilibrium constant of reactions
b) Increasing the potential energy
c) Decreasing the energy of activation
d) Decreasing the potential energy
Ans. (c)
111. Potato spindle tuber disease is transmitted:
a) Mechanically
b) Biologically
c) Chemically
d) All of these
Ans. (a)
112. Black heart of potato is the result of:
a) High temperature during transit
b) Poor ventilation in the store
c) High temperature of soil during growth and maturation of tubers in the crop field
d) All of these
Ans. (d)
113. Alternate host of black stem rust of wheat is:
a) Mohania
b) Thalictrum
c) Barberry
d) All of the above
Ans. (c)
114. Plant pathology is a________ word.
a) English
b) Latin
c) Greek
d) Mandarin
Ans. (c)
115. Brown spot of maize is caused by:
a) Sclerospora sorghi
b) Physoderus zeamaydis
c) Alternaria solani
d) Cercospora perfonats
Ans. (b)
116. In plains of India which wheat rust appeared first?
a) Black rust
b) Orange rust
c) Yellow rust
d) Orange and yellow
Ans. (c)
117. Indian Journal of Mycology and Plant Pathology is published from:
a) IARI, New Delhi
b) Botany Department, Lucknow University
c) R.C.A., Udaipur
d) Botany Department, Madras University
Ans. (c)
118. Indian Phytopathological Society was established by:
a) J.F.Dastur
b) E.J.Butler
c) B.B.Mundkar
d) K.C.Mehta
Ans. (b)
119. The Central and State Governments are in the process of creating more regulated markets so that the command area of each market does not extend beyond_________ square km
a) 80
b) 200
c) 300
d) 400
Ans. (a)
120. The cost of various operations from land preparation to threshing of the crop is known as
a) Cost of cultivation
b) Cost of farming
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
Ans. (a)
121. The demand for common salt is:
a) Perfectly elastic
b) Highly elastic
c) Inelastic
d) Less elastic
Ans. (c)
122. The demand for wheat is:
a) Perfectly elastic
b) Inelastic
c) Fixed
d) Less elastic
Ans. (d)
123. The function of successful farm manager is:
a) Formation of the goals
b) Recognition and definition of a problem
c) Decision making and taking action
d) All of these
Ans. (d)
124. The process of determination of wages, rent, interest and profit is called
a) Sensitivity analysis
b) Budgeting
c) Distribution
d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
125. The process of transformation of certain resources or inputs is known as:
a) Planning
b) Modification
c) Production
d) Consumption
Ans. (c)
126. The relationship between cost function and production function is:
a) Positive
b) Negative
c) Increase
d) None of the above
Ans. (b)
127. The resources, if their services are not used, these cannot be stocked are known as:
a) Stock resources
b) Flow resources
c) Fixed resources
d) All the above
Ans. (b)
128. The return from best alternate use of that input forgone by putting it to the present use is known as:
a) Temporary cost
b) Total cost
c) Fixed cost
d) Opportunity cost
Ans. (d)
129. The route through which agricultural products move from producers to consumers is known as:
a) Supply channel
b) Marketing channels
c) Consumption route
d) Marketing institutions
Ans. (b)
130. The number of V.L.W. in an I.A.D.P. bock is:
a) 8
b) 5
c) 20
d) 2
Ans. (c)