List of 220 + multiple choice questions and answers on Agriculture! This will help you to learn about the most frequently asked objective type questions on agriculture especially compiled for ICAR (JRF/SRF), ARS, IARI Ph.D and other competitive exams.
Contents:
- MCQs on Agronomy
- MCQs on Horticulture
- MCQs on Genetics
- MCQs on Soil Science
- MCQs on Entomology
- MCQs on Plant Pathology
- MCQs on Plant Physiology
- MCQs on Agricultural Economics
- MCQs on Agricultural Extension
- MCQs on Agricultural Statistics
- MCQs on Forestry
- MCQs on Biotechnology
- MCQs on Agricultural Microbiology
- MCQs on Farm Machinery
- MCQs on Soil and Water Engineering
1. MCQs on Agronomy:
1. Agriculture is a ________
(A) Greek word
(B) Latin word
(C) German word
(D) Spanish
Ans. B
2. The term agronomy is derived from ________
(A) German word
(B) Latin word
(C) Spanish
(D) Greek word
Ans. D
3. Primary resource for agriculture
(A) Land, air and water
(B) Seed, Fertilizer and Pesticide
(C) Seed, air and water
(D) Land, Fertilizer and water
Ans. A
4. Cultivation of rice begins in _______
(A) 2200 BC
(B) 5700 BC
(C) 7700 BC
(D) 8700 BC
Ans. A
5. The book ‘Horse hoeing husbandry’ was published by _______
(A) Van Helmont
(B) Gregor Johann Mendel
(C) Jethro tull
(D) None
Ans. C
6. The ‘Annals of Agriculture’ was published by _________
(A) Jethro Tull
(B) Aurther Young
(C) Van Helmont
(D) None
Ans. B
7. The book ‘Element of Agricultural Chemistry’ was published by ________
(A) Justus Von Liebig
(B) Sir Humphry Davy
(C) Van Helmont
(D) J.B. Lawes
Ans. B
8. Experiments on effect of manures on crop were initiated by ________
(A) Sir John Bannet Lawes
(B) G. J. Mendel
(C) Van Helmont
(D) Justus Von Liebig
Ans. A
9. ________ (1674-1741 AD) conducted several experiments on plant nutrient and published a book, “Horse Hoeing Husbandry”
(A) Sir Humphry Davy
(B) Aristotal
(C) Jethro Tull
(D) Van Helmount
Ans. C
10. Kharif, Rabi and Zaid word belong to _______
(A) Urdu
(B) French
(C) Persian
(D) Arabic
Ans. D
11. Climate pertains to a __________
(A) Long period of time
(B) Short duration
(C) Medium duration
(D) None
Ans. A
12. Principles of mercury barometers was discovered by __________
(A) Torricelli
(B) Aristotle
(C) Pliny
(D) Galileo
Ans. A
13. Instrument used for measuring wind velocity is known as __________
(A) Hydrometer
(B) Pyranometer
(C) Altimeter
(D) Anemometer
Ans. D
14. The term PET was coined by __________
(A) Sarkar and Biswas
(B) Haigreaves
(C) Thornthwaite
(D) Mendel
Ans. C
15. A rainy day called when rainfall received in 24 hrs
(A) >2.5 mm
(B) >3.0 mm
(C) >5.0 mm
(D) >1.0 mm
Ans. A
2. MCQs on Horticulture:
16. Directorate of Onion and Garlic Research (DOGR) is situated at ________
(A) Shimla
(B) Nasik
(C) New Delhi
(D) Lucknow
Ans. B
17. Central Arid Zone Research Institute (CAZRI) is located at ________
(A) Jodhpur
(B) Nagpur
(C) Bikaner
(D) Pune
Ans. A
18. National Horticulture Mission (NHM) was started in ________
(A) 2000-01
(B) 2003-04
(C) 2001-02
(D) 2005-06
Ans. D
19. National Research Centre for Litchi (NRCL) is located at _________
(A) Pune
(B) Muzaffarpur
(C) Lucknow
(D) Kolkata
Ans. B
20. Central Drug Research Institute is situated at _________
(A) Lucknow
(B) Mumbai
(C) New Delhi
(D) Hyderabad
Ans. A
21. National Biodiversity Authority is located at _________
(A) Chennai
(B) New Delhi
(C) Nagpur
(D) Gurgaon
Ans. A
22. Central Institute of Post-Harvest Engineering and Technology (CIPHET) is located at ________
(A) Haryana
(B) Pune
(C) Ludhiana
(D) Gurgaon
Ans. C
23. International Potato Research Centre at _________
(A) Shimla
(B) Peru
(C) Rome
(D) USA
Ans. B
24. Father of Horticulture
(A) Thomas Andrew Knight
(B) Liberty Hyde Bailey
(C) John Lindley
(D) All of the above
Ans. D
25. Word “Horticulture” is derived from _________
(A) Latin
(B) English
(C) Greek
(D) Italic
Ans. A
26. All India Coordinated Vegetable Improvement Project (AICVIP) was started in _____
(A) 1991-92
(B) 1981-82
(C) 1970-71
(D) 1960-61
Ans. C
27. First commercial vegetable seed production unit in India was established in 1942 at _____
(A) Quetta
(B) Kullu
(C) Nilgiri
(D) Pusa
Ans. A
28. Under the All India Coordinated Vegetable Improvement Project (AICVIP), India is divided into agro-climatic zones
(A) 8
(B) 12
(C) 18
(D) 24
Ans. A
29. New seed police was launched in ________
(A) 1982
(B) 1992
(C) 1988
(D) 1986
Ans. C
30. Pomology is derived from _____
(A) Latin
(B) French
(C) English
(D) Greek
Ans. D
3. MCQs on Genetics:
31. Who coined the term genetics?
(A) Hugo de vries
(B) W.L. Johannsen
(C) T.H. Morgan
(D) W. Bateson
Ans. D
32. The germplasm theory was proposed by _____
(A) Weisman
(B) Mendel
(C) Darwin
(D) Hugo de vries
Ans. A
33. The alternative forms of a gene are known as _____
(A) Transgene
(B) Pseudogene
(C) Mixed gene
(D) Alleles
Ans. D
34. Which of the following is the controlling centre of a cell
(A) Chloroplast
(B) Nucleus
(C) Nucleolus
(D) Mitochondria
Ans. B
35. Which of the following produces pseudo-dominance
(A) Inversion
(B) Deletion
(C) Duplication
(D) Translocation
Ans. B
36. Which of the following bases is not present in DNA
(A) Adenine
(B) Thymine
(C) Uracil
(D) Cytosine
Ans. C
37. Balbiani rings are found in which of the following
(A) Lampbrush chromosomes
(B) Sex chromosomes
(C) Polytene chromosomes
(D) B chromosomes
Ans. C
38. In which of the following sub stages of meiosis-I, chromatin exchange between non- sister chromatids is completed
(A) Pachytene
(B) Diplotene
(C) Zygotene
(D) Diakinesis
Ans. A
39. The theory of origin of species through natural selection was proposed by _____
(A) Darwin
(B) Lamarck
(C) Mendel
(D) Vilmorin
Ans. A
40. In 1909 multiple factor hypothesis was given by _____
(A) Levene
(B) Brown
(C) Nilson Ehle
(D) Waldeyer
Ans. C
41. Mendel’s laws were rediscovered in which of the following years
(A) 1890
(B) 1905
(C) 1900
(D) 1898
Ans. C
42. The term ‘genotype’ and ‘phenotype’ were introduced by _____
(A) W.L. Johannsen
(B) W.Bateson
(C) G.J. Mendel
(D) R.C. Punnet
Ans. A
43. Gene which affect the expression of more than one character are known as which of the following
(A) Multiple gene
(B) Pleiotropic gene
(C) Epistatic gene
(D) Hypostatic gene
Ans. B
44. Effect of one gene on the phenotypic expression of other non-allelic gene is termed as which of the following
(A) Dominance
(B) Pleiotropy
(C) Epistatic
(D) Over-dominance
Ans. C
45. In case of supplementary gene action, F2 generation shows which of the following phenotypic ratio
(A) 9:3:4
(B) 9:7
(C) 12:3:1
(D) 9:6:1
Ans. A
4. MCQs on Soil Science:
46. In 5 master horizon which horizon is called elluvial/washout horizon
(A) A
(B) B
(C) E
(D) All of the above
Ans. C
47. The active soil forming factor
(A) Climate
(B) Relief
(C) Organism
(D) Both A and C
Ans. D
48. The parent material transported by gravity is called _______
(A) Lacustrine
(B) Colluvium
(C) Alluvium
(D) None of the above
Ans. B
49. Transformation of raw organic matter into humus is called ________
(A) Humification
(B) Brounification
(C) Rubrification
(D) All of the above
Ans. A
50. Removal of silica from soil and accumulation of sesquioxide is known as _____
(A) Podzolization
(B) Laterization
(C) Gleization
(D) Both A and B
Ans. B
51. Mixing process of soil is called _______
(A) Pedoturbation
(B) Podzolization
(C) Laterization
(D) None of the above
Ans. A
52. Which element found highest in earth crust?
(A) Oxygen
(B) Silicon
(C) Aluminium
(D) Iron
Ans. A
53. _____ of igneous rock is found in earth crust
(A) 45%
(B) 65%
(C) 75%
(D) 95%
Ans. D
54. The rocks formed by alteration by heat and pressure is called _____
(A) Sedimentary rock
(B) Metamorphic rock
(C) Igneous rock
(D) None of the above
Ans. B
55. Slate is metamorphs from which rock
(A) Shale
(B) Sandstone
(C) Granite
(D) Dolomite
Ans. A
56. CO2 concentration in soil air
(A) 0.25%
(B) 0.025%
(C) 0.0025%
(D) 2.5%
Ans. A
57. Soil shows plasticity
(A) > 15% clay
(B) < 15% clay
(C) 10% silt
(D) 5 -10% clay
Ans. A
58. Attraction between two dissimilar molecules is called _____
(A) Attraction
(B) Cohesion
(C) Adhesion
(D) Flocculation
Ans. C
59. Flocculation order is appropriate
(A) A1 > Ca and H > Mg > K > Na
(B) A1 > Na and H > Mg > K > Ca
(C) Al > Ca and K > Mg > H > Na
(D) Na > Ca and H > Mg > K > Al
Ans. A
60. Maximum CEC found in _____
(A) Vermiculite
(B) Humus
(C) Montmorrilonite
(D) Kaolinite
Ans. B
5. MCQs on Entomology:
61. Filter chamber of Homopterans helps in rapid removal of _______
(A) Salts
(B) Water
(C) Excretory material
(D) Nitrogen
Ans. B
62. Systole refers to _____
(A) Relaxation phase
(B) Both relaxation and contraction
(C) Contraction phase
(D) None of these
Ans. C
63. Haemoglobin as blood pigment is found in ______
(A) Chironomids
(B) Cochroaches
(C) Calliphora
(D) Calliphora
Ans. A
64. Number of segments in the abdomen of Collembola is _____
(A) 10
(B) 11
(C) 08
(D) 06
Ans. D
65. Anamorphosis is the phenomenon found in _____
(A) Collembola
(B) Diplura
(C) Protura
(D) Thysanura
Ans. C
66. Malpighian tubules are absent in _____
(A) Protura
(B) Thysanoptera
(C) Collembola
(D) Isoptera
Ans. C
67. Base of the compound eye is strengthened by _____
(A) Ocelli
(B) Circum ocular suture
(C) Circum ocular sulcus
(D) Ommatidia
Ans. C
68. BHC was first synthesized by _____
(A) Faraday
(B) Finkenbrink
(C) Zeidler
(D) Glover
Ans. A
69. The type of eyes found in larvae is _____
(A) Ocelli
(B) Stemmata
(C) Compound eyes
(D) Ommatidia
Ans. B
70. The compound responsible for bioluminescence in insects is _____
(A) Chitin
(B) Xanthophylls
(C) Lucifcrin
(D) Keratin
Ans. C
71. Entomological society of India started in _________
(A) 1934
(B) 1938
(C) 1936
(D) 1940
Ans. B
72. The International code of Zoological Nomenclature consists of _____
(A) 57 articles
(B) 77 articles
(C) 67 articles
(D) 87 articles
Ans. D
73. Which of the following is not head sclerite:
(A) Gena
(B) Epimeron
(C) Frons
(D) Vertex
Ans. B
74. Which of the following is associated with articulation of wings:
(A) Trochanter
(B) Phragmata
(C) Tegula
(D) Scutum
Ans. C
75. White muscardine disease is caused by _________
(A) Metarrhizium anisoplae
(B) Nosema sp.
(C) Beauveria bassiana
(D) Granulosis virus
Ans. C
6. MCQs on Plant Pathology:
76. Who recommended copper sulphate for seed treatment of wheat against bunt and demonstrated its fungi-toxic value first time
(A) Mason
(B) Benedict Prevost
(C) Singh
(D) P.M.A. Millardet
Ans. B
77. Among all the Aflatoxins, Aflatoxin Bi is the most toxic. Which species of Aspergillus produce/s Aflatoxin B1 and B2
(A) Aspergillus niger
(B) Aspergillus flavus
(C) Aspergillus parasiticus
(D) Both B and C
Ans. D
78. Which species of Aspergillus produces Aflatoxin G1 and G2
(A) Aspergillus niger
(B) Aspergillus flavus
(C) Aspergillus parasiticus
(D) Both B and C
Ans. C
79. Who introduced burgundy mixture using sodium carbonate in place of lime?
(A) Mason
(B) Narsimhan
(C) Singh
(D) P.M A. Millardet
Ans. A
80. Who discovered “Bordeaux mixture” to control downy mildew of grapevine by using copper sulphate (blue stone) and hydrated lime?
(A) Mason
(B) Narsimhan
(C) Singh
(D) P.M A. Millardet
Ans. D
81. In 1942 which of the Indian scientist developed “Chaubatia paste” in Almora district (UP) as a wound dressing fungicide for this he used copper carbonate, Lead oxide and linseed oil
(A) Mason
(B) Narsimhan
(C) Singh
(D) P.M A. Millardet
Ans. C
82. What is the actual ratio of copper carbonate, Lead oxide and Linseed oil in “Chaubatia Paste?”
(A) 1:1:1.25
(B) 1:1:1.5
(C) 2:1:2
(D) 1:2:2
Ans. A
83. Who discovered first broad spectrum antibiotic Streptomycin in 1943
(A) Weindling
(B) Von Schmeling and Marshal Kulka
(C) S.A. Waksman and A. Schatz
(D) S.M. Idris
Ans. C
84. Who discovered first systemic fungicide “Oxathin”
(A) Weindling
(B) Von Schmeling and Marshal Kulka
(C) S A. Waksman and A. Schatz
(D) S.M. Indris
Ans. B
85. Who developed the concept of vivo toxins and worked out the mechanism of wilting in cotton due to production of fusaric acid by Fusarium oxysporum f. sp. vasinfectum
(A) J.F. Dastur
(B) K.R. Kirtikar
(C) T.S. Sadasivan
(D) S.N. Dasgusta
Ans. C
86. Who developed solar heat treatment for loose smut of wheat caused by Ustilogo segetum var. tritici
(A) J.C. Luthra and A. Sattar
(B) Ramanujan and Co-workers
(C) K.C. Mehta
(D) G. Rangaswamy
Ans. A
87. Who developed “seed plot technique” for virus free seed production of potato in Indo-Gangetic Plains?
(A) J.C. Luthra and A. Sattar
(B) S.N. Dasgupta
(C) Ramanujan and Co-workers
(D) S. Nagarjan and H. Singh
Ans. C
88. Who formulated “Indian stem rust rules” for Puccinia graminis var. tritici
(A) J.C. Luthra and A.
(B) K.C. Mehta Sattar
(C) T.S. Ramakrishan
(D) S. Nagarjan and H. Singh
Ans. D
89. The first disease forecasting system in plant pathology was developed for grapevine downy mildew (Plasmopara viticola) in the year ______
(A) 1913
(B) 1914
(C) 1915
(D) 1916
Ans. A
90. The first report on use of solar energy for the control of soil-borne disease was published by _____
(A) J.C. Luthra and A. Sattar
(B) Katan and Co-workers
(C) M.J. Thirumalachar
(D) C.D. Mayee
Ans. B
7. MCQs on Plant Physiology:
91. The smallest animal egg is _______
(A) Ostrich
(B) Human female
(C) Duck
(D) Hen
Ans. B
92. The largest animal cell is ________
(A) Ostrich
(B) Horse
(C) Monkey
(D) Duck
Ans. A
93. The largest plant cells are ________
(A) Xylem vessel cell
(B) Parenchyma cells
(C) Sieve tube cells
(D) Sclerenchyma fibers
Ans. D
94. The smallest component of cell is ______
(A) Microfilament
(B) Ribosome
(C) Plastid
(D) Phagosome
Ans. A
95. The smaller cell is metabolically _____
(A) Less active
(B) With smaller nucleus
(C) With larger nucleus
(D) More active
Ans. D
96. Cells metabolically active have _________
(A) Lower nucleo-cytoplasmic ratio
(B) Higher nucleo-cytoplasmic ratio
(C) Higher surface: volume ratio
(D) Both B and C
Ans. D
97. Exception of cell theory is _____
(A) Protistans
(B) Algae
(C) Virus
(D) Mycoplasma
Ans. C
98. The property of cell in which a cell can form many phenotypes is _____
(A) Totipotency
(B) Parasexually
(C) Pleuriopotency
(D) Parthenogenesis
Ans. C
99. Food vacuole in cell is made from ______
(A) Phagosome + Lysosome
(B) Phagosome + Feeding canals
(C) Vesicles of a gas vacuole
(D) None of the above
Ans. A
100. Granules of nucleolus are _____
(A) Precursors of ribosomes
(B) Precursors of RNA
(C) Precursors of chromosomes
(D) None of the above
Ans. A
101. Nucleolar organizing region (NOR) is occurs in the region of ______
(A) Secondary constriction
(B) Primary constriction
(C) Telomere
(D) Centromere
Ans. A
102. Chromosomes present in Eukaryotic cell are composed of _______
(A) RNA + DNA
(B) DNA + Protein
(C) Only RNA
(D) Only DNA
Ans. B
103. Balbiani rings are called ______
(A) Coilling of chromonemata
(B) Uncoilling of chromonemata
(C) Both A and B
(D) Enlargements of centromere
Ans. B
104. In case of plant chromosomes which type of banding techniques used?
(A) C and N
(B) C and G
(C) G and R
(D) Q and G
Ans. A
105. Middle lamella contains _______
(A) Cellulose
(B) Lignin
(C) Pectate
(D) Cutin
Ans. C
8. MCQs on Agricultural Economics:
106. The best use of limited resources is studied under the law of ________
(A) Substitution
(B) Opportunity cost
(C) Diminishing returns
(D) All of the above
Ans. A
107. Combination of crop production and milk production activities is an example of ______
(A) Competitive
(B) Complementary
(C) Supplementary
(D) None of the above
Ans. B
108. When TPP is maximum, the MPP will be ______
(A) Maximum
(B) Zero
(C) Minimum
(D) None of the above
Ans. B
109. Agricultural finance mainly concern with ______
(A) Utilization of funds
(B) Acquisition of funds
(C) Utilization and Acquisition of funds both
(D) None of the above
Ans. C
110. Product are at the maximum for a farm business when output is at a level where _____
(A) MC = AC
(B) MR=AR
(C) MR = AC
(D) MC = MR
Ans. D
111. Co-operatives for tribes are called as ________
(A) Multi-purpose societies
(B) Savita
(C) Lead Bank
(D) Large agriculture multi-purpose Cooperative Societies
Ans. D
112. A farmer can increase his farm income by ______
(A) Increasing production
(B) Reducing cost of production
(C) Both A and B
(D) None of the above
Ans. D
113. The regulated market have been established by ________
(A) Central government
(B) District Municipal Corporation
(C) State government
(D) Panchayats
Ans. C
114. Maximum profit is obtained at the point, where _______
(A) MP = AP
(B) MP < AP
(C) MP > AP
(D) None of the above.
Ans. D
115. What is the most important source of money lending to farmers in rural areas
(A) Rural Banks
(B) Local money lender
(C) Nationalized banks
(D) Cooperative agencies
Ans. B
116. Utility of last unit is called ______
(A) Initial utility
(B) Total utility
(C) Marginal utility
(D) Zero utility
Ans. C
117. Diversified farming is ______
(A) Type of farming
(B) System of farming
(C) Both A and B
(D) None of the above
Ans. A
118. National income denotes ______
(A) Revenue of the government in one year
(B) Sum total of all factor earnings in the country
(C) Revenue of nationalized enterprises
(D) Banks budgetary surplus of the government
Ans. B
119. Which of the following is management decision
(A) Level of resource use
(B) Selection of least cost
(C) Enterprise mix
(D) All of the above
Ans. C
120. Short term loan mainly given for purchase of ________
(A) Pump set
(B) Seed
(C) Heavy machinery
(D) Bullock
Ans. B
9. MCQs on Agricultural Extension:
121. The latin roots for the word ‘Extension’
(A) Ex and tension
(B) Ex and tensio
(C) Ex and lucco
(D) Ex and termo
Ans. B
122. ‘Farmers first’ model was put forwarded by ________
(A) Robert Chamber
(B) A. Readdy
(C) Knapp
(D) D. Berlo
Ans. A
123. The main mode of extension in the ‘farmers first’ model is _____
(A) Farmer to farmer
(B) Agent to farmer
(C) Research to agent
(D) Farmer to scientist
Ans. A
124. ‘Andragogy’ is for ______
(A) Children
(B) Adult
(C) Both A and B
(D) None of the above
Ans. B
125. The term ‘Pedagogy’ literally mean ______
(A) Children learning
(B) Adult learning
(C) Both A and B
(D) None of the above
Ans. A
126. The concept of extension education process was given by ______
(A) Paul Leagans
(B) Van Den Ban
(C) Wilson and Gallup
(D) Alexander
Ans. A
127. James Stuart associated with ______
(A) Extension education
(B) University extension
(C) Both A and B
(D) None of the above
Ans. B
128. The learning curve is teaching follows a ______
(A) S-shape
(B) U-shape
(C) V-shape
(D) L-shape
Ans. A
129. The ‘Cone of experience’ was developed by ______
(A) Berlo
(B) Lewin
(C) Van Den Ban
(D) Edgar Dale
Ans. D
130. Who is father of extension in India?
(A) Robert Chamber
(B) A. Reddy
(C) C.K.N. Singh
(D) D. Berlo
Ans. C
131. Reading newspaper is which level of communication
(A) Inter personal
(B) Intra personal
(C) Dyadic
(D) Intra organization
Ans. B
132. Who is father of extension education?
(A) Robert Chamber
(B) J.P. Leagans
(C) K.N. Singh
(D) James Stuart
Ans. B
133. Teaching process was given by ______
(A) Wilson and Gallup
(B) J.P. Leagans
(C) K.N. Singh
(D) James Stuart
Ans. A
134. Important element of learning situation ______
(A) Learner
(B) Situation
(C) Teacher
(D) Study materials
Ans. A
135. Important function of communication
(A) Information
(B) Influence
(C) Integrative
(D) Persuasive
Ans. B
10. MCQs on Agricultural Statistics:
136. Who is father of Statistics?
(A) R. A. Fisher
(B) F. Galton
(C) C. R. Rao
(D) Karl Pearson
Ans. A
137. What do you mean by degrees of freedom?
(A) Number of independent observations
(B) Number of independent contrasts
(C) Number of observations in the design
(D) Number of Contrasts
Ans. A
138. The shape and size of the experimental plot and block will be determined by ______
(A) Fairfield Smith Index
(B) Yate’s Index
(C) Yate’s Algorithm
(D) None of these
Ans. A
139. What are the basic principles of design of experiments?
(A) Randomization
(B) Local control
(C) Replication
(D) All of the above
Ans. C
140. What will be the error degrees of freedom in a Latin square design with ‘v’ number of treatments?
(A) v2 – 3v + 2
(B) (v – 1)(v – 3)
(C) v (v – 1)
(D) None of these
Ans. A
141. In a Strip plot design, which is type of the contrast given more importance?
(A) Vertical main effects
(B) Horizontal main effects
(C) Interaction effects
(D) None of these
Ans. C
142. In a Split plot design, which is type of the contrast given more importance?
(A) Main plot treatments
(B) Sub Sub-plot treatments
(C) Sub plot treatments
(D) All contrasts are equally important
Ans. C
143. In the analysis of covariance, what is the name of the additional variable?
(A) Concomitant variable
(B) Random variable
(C) Analysis variable
(D) Secondary variable
Ans. A
144. Which of the following design does not follow local control?
(A) BIB design
(B) Completely Randomized design
(C) Randomized block design
(D) None of the above
Ans. B
145. The cause of experimental error is _____
(A) Variation in treatment
(B) Unknown factors effects
(C) Experimenter’s mistakes
(D) None of these
Ans. B
146. Errors in a statistical model are always taken to be _______
(A) Independent
(B) Distributed as N(0, σ2)
(C) Both a and b
(D) None of the above
Ans. C
147. What is the role of a uniformity trial?
(A) To estimate the fertility status of the field
(B) To estimate the error of the experiment
(C) To identify the borders of the field
(D) To conduct the experiment smoothly
Ans. A
148. To find out CD values of a design, what test is used?
(A) F- test
(B) t – test
(C) z – test
(D) Chi- square test
Ans. B
149. If the occurrence or non- occurrence of any event does not affect the occurrence or non-occurrence of any other event, then the events are _______
(A) Equally likely
(B) Independent
(C) Mutually Exclusive
(D) None of the above
Ans. B
150. In set theory, A ∩ (B ∪ C) = (A ∩ B) ∪ (A ∩ C) is due to the property of ______
(A) Commutativity
(B) Associativity
(C) Distributivity
(D) Imdempotency
Ans. C
11. MCQs on Forestry:
151. In India homestead garden mainly practiced
(A) South
(B) West
(C) East
(D) North
Ans. A
152. Leucaena leucocephala fixex nitrogen in the range of kg/ha/year
(A) 100-200
(B) 100-300
(C) 100-400
(D) 100-500
Ans. D
153. In which part of India the first taungya plantation started
(A) North Bengal
(B) South Bengal
(C) East Bengal
(D) All of these
Ans. A
154. Which direction hedge row intercropping is raised?
(A) South-East
(B) North-West
(C) East-West
(D) West-East
Ans. C
155. Freshly cut wood contain ______ per cent moisture
(A) 12-15
(B) 15-17
(C) 20-22
(D) 23-25
Ans. D
156. Taungya system is followed in area having rainfall of ______
(A) 1200-1500 mm
(B) 1500-2000 mm
(C) 2000-2500 mm
(D) 2500-3000 mm
Ans. A
157. In India average size of home garden is ______
(A) 1-2 ha
(B) 2-3 ha
(C) 2-4 ha
(D) 2-5 ha
Ans. D
158. Root of trees contain (%) total living biomass is _______
(A) 10-15
(B) 15-20
(C) 20-25
(D) 20-30
Ans. C
159. Van-Mahotasav was started in the year
(A) 1947
(B) 1950
(C) 1955
(D) 1960
Ans. B
160. In India, plantation forestry was started in ________
(A) 1840
(B) 1842
(C) 1848
(D) 184
Ans. B
161. Nitrogen fixing ability of Casurina is due to _____
(A) Rhizobium
(B) Azotobactor
(C) Frankia
(D) All of these
Ans. C
162. Social forestry was first recommended by ________
(A) National Commission on Agriculture
(B) Food and Agriculture Organization
(C) Govt. of India
(D) United Nation
Ans. A
163. “Tree means water, water is bread and bread is life” was first time quoted by ______
(A) Westoby
(B) Stenley
(C) William
(D) Shelford
Ans. A
164. The world Agroforestry Centre is located at _________
(A) Jhansi
(B) Nairobi
(C) Dehradun
(D) Jodhpur
Ans. B
165. The D & D procedure applied in the village is known as:
(A) Meso level
(B) Macro level
(C) Micro level
(D) All of these
Ans. A
12. MCQs on Biotechnology:
166. Pomato is somatic
(A) Poppy and Potato
(B) Poppy and Tamarind
(C) Potato and Tomato
(D) Poppy and Tomato
Ans. C
167. Preserving germplasm in frozen state is ______
(A) Cryopreservation
(B) In situ preservation
(C) Cold storage
(D) Vernalisation
Ans. A
168. ‘Hairy roots’ induced in vitro by the infection of Agrobacterium rhizogenes, are characterized by ______
(A) High degree of lateral branching
(B) Genetic instability of culture
(C) Presence of geotropism
(D) Poor biomass production
Ans. A
169. In callus culture, roots can be induced by the supply of _________
(A) Auxin and no cytokinin
(B) High auxin and low cytokinin
(C) High cytokinin and low auxin
(D) Auxin and cytokinin equal proportion
Ans. B
170. Transgenic microorganisms have been used to improve or benefit all but which of the following _________
(A) Meat yield
(B) Crop improvement
(C) Pest reduction
(D) Bioremediation
Ans. A
171. Plant medium used widely in preparation of culture medium is got from _________
(A) Cycas revolute
(B) Cocos nucifera
(C) Pirns roxburghii
(D) Borassus flabellifera
Ans. B
172. Flavr savr variety of Tomato remains fresh for long because it _________
(A) Has little polygalacturonase
(B) Abundant polygalacturonase
(C) Has gene for antibiotic resistance
(D) Lacks amylase
Ans. A
173. A major use of embryo culture is in _________
(A) Clonal propagation
(B) Overcoming hybridization barrier
(C) Production of alkaloids
(D) Introduction of somaclonal variation
Ans. B
174. Tiny fat bubbles used to deliver genes are _________
(A) Electropores
(B) Cholesterols
(C) Phospholipids
(D) Liposomes
Ans. D
175. A true transgenic organisms must carry the transgene in _______
(A) Every cell
(B) Somatic cells only
(C) Gametes only
(D) The cell that originally gets it
Ans. A
176. Transgenic pharming involves using ______ to produce recombinant proteins in ______
(A) Cows, milk
(B) Bacteria, culture media
(C) Phage, bacteria
(D) Fungi, culture media
Ans. A
177. Bt toxin producing plants are resistant to ________
(A) Brown plant hopper
(B) Round worm
(C) Gall midge
(D) Pink Boll worm
Ans. D
178. Which of the following is not a cloning vector
(A) Helicase
(B) SV40
(C) PBR322
(D) E.coli genomic DNA
Ans. A
179. The phenomenon of the reversion of mature cells to the meristematic state leading to the formation of callus is known as ______
(A) Redifferentiation
(B) Either A or B
(C) Dedifferentiation
(D) None of the above
Ans. C
180. The first field tests were conducted with which of the following genetically altered organism
(A) Bt Corn
(B) The flavr savr tomato
(C) Vaccinia virus containing a gene from the rabies virus
(D) Strawberry seedlings sprayed with ice-minus bacteria
Ans. D
13. MCQs on Agricultural Microbiology:
181. Father of Microbiology
(A) A.V. Leeuwenhoek
(B) Robert Hooke
(C) Robert Koch
(D) Ivanovsky
Ans. A
182. Father of Bacteriology
(A) A.V. Leewenhoek
(B) Robert Hooke
(C) Robert Koch
(D) Ivanovsky
Ans. C
183. The natural resistance in plant attributed by ______
(A) Polyphenols
(B) Thick cell wall
(C) Good nutrition
(D) High protein content
Ans. B
184. Unicellular prokaryotic microorganism with ray like filaments
(A) Bacteria
(B) Fungi
(C) Actinomycetes
(D) All of the above
Ans. C
185. Cell wall of gram positive bacteria is made up of ______
(A) Amino acid
(B) Lipid
(C) Pepditogycan
(D) Protein
Ans. C
186. Nitrification process is discovered by _____
(A) Schloesing and Muntz (1877)
(B) Ruinen and Hiltner
(C) Winogradsky and Beijernick
(D) Beijernickia and Winogradsky
Ans. A
187. Bacteria responsible for Nitrification is isolated by _______
(A) Winogradsky
(B) Beijernickia
(C) Ruinen
(D) Hiltner
Ans. A
188. The first member of the genus Azotobacter is discovered by ______
(A) M.W. Beijerinck
(B) Winogradsky
(C) Ruinen
(D) Hiltner
Ans. A
189. The word Rhizosphere and Phyllosphere is respectively given by ______
(A) Hiltner and Ruinen
(B) Ruincn and Hiltner
(C) Winogradsky and Beijernickia
(D) None of the above
Ans. B
190. Which of following is not found in prokaryotic cell
(A) Ribosomes
(B) Cell wall
(C) Photosynthetic membrane
(D) Nucleus
Ans. D
191. Flagellar arrangement when it was cluster of polar flagella
(A) Monotrichous
(B) Lophotrichous
(C) Peritrichous
(D) Amphitrichous
Ans. B
192. Robert Koch worked on ______
(A) Diabetes
(B) Cholera
(C) Malaria
(D) Tuberculosis
Ans. D
193. Cold loving microbe is known as _____
(A) Mesophile
(B) Psychrophile
(C) Thermophile
(D) Hyperthermophile
Ans. B
194. Prokaryotic microorganism includes ______
(A) Fungi
(B) Actinomycetes
(C) Bacteria
(D) Virus
Ans. C
195. First electron microscope was made by ______
(A) Knoll and Ruska
(B) Ernest Abbe
(C) Robert Koch
(D) Antonie Van Leeuwenhoek
Ans. A
14. MCQs on Farm Machinery:
196. Maximum power developed by an average man is about
(A) 1 hp
(B) 0.1 hp
(C) 0.2 hp
(D) 0.5 hp
Ans. B
197. Thermal efficiency of petrol engine varies from
(A) 32 to 38%
(B) 25 to 32%
(C) 50 to 60%
(D) None of these
Ans. B
198. The drought animal can exert average force approximately
(A) 1/10th of their body weight
(B) 1/5th of their body weight
(C) 1/15th of their body weight
(D) 1/7th of their body weight
Ans. A
199. Methane percentage of biogas varies from _________
(A) 5 to 10%
(B) 10 to 25%
(C) 30 to 40%
(D) 45 to 70%
Ans. D
200. The ratio of cow dung and water for making slurry to feed the bio-gas plant is _______
(A) 1:2
(B) 4:5
(C) 3:2
(D) 1:5
Ans. B
201. In biogas plant how much temperature is maintained for biogas production
(A) 20°C
(B) 35°C
(C) 15°C
(D) 10°C
Ans. B
202. Cetane number of commercial diesel fuel varies from _________
(A) 30 to 40
(B) 20 to 30
(C) 30 to 60
(D) 60 to 90
Ans. C
203. Volatility of fuel is measured by ________
(A) Blotting paper test
(B) Bhors experiment
(C) Distillation test
(D) Both A and B
Ans. C
204. The ratio of change in length to original length is called _________
(A) Longitudinal stress
(B) Longitudinal stain
(C) Shear stress
(D) Both A and B
Ans. B
205. The maximum stress up to which a body exhibits the property of elasticity is the
(A) Breaking point
(B) Working limit
(C) Yield point
(D) Elastic limit
Ans. D
206. Hooke’s law states that _________
(A) Yield point ∝ 1/Elastic limit
(B) Stress ∝ 1/Strain
(C) Stress ∝ Strain
(D) Both A and B
Ans. C
207. The ratio of normal stress and bulk modulus is known as ______
(A) Young’s Modulus
(B) Modulus of elasticity
(C) Bulk modulus
(D) Modulus of rigidity
Ans. C
208. White in colour of white cost iron is due to _________
(A) Absence of graphite
(B) Both A and C flakes
(C) Low silicon content
(D) None of these
Ans. B
209. Process of annealing is done in white cast iron as to convert in malleable cast iron at a temperature
(A) 1000°F
(B) 1500°F
(C) 1600°F
(D) 500°F
Ans. C
210. Brass is the alloy of ______
(A) Cu 60-70%, Zn 30- 0%
(B) Cu 50-60%, Zn 40-50%
(C) Cu 80-90%, Zn 10-20%
(D) All of the above
Ans. A
15. MCQs on Soil and Water Engineering:
211. Water saving to the tune _______ of percent is possible in sprinkler irrigation system
(A) 30 to 50
(B) 60 to 65
(C) 55 to 85
(D) 70 to 80
Ans. A
212. The overlap of sprinklers increase with ______ in wind velocity
(A) Decreases
(B) Increases
(C) Lowering
(D) None of the above
Ans. C
213. Sprinkler irrigation can be used for almost all crops except
(A) Cotton, Sorghum
(B) Rice, Jute
(C) Chilli, Tomato
(D) Sugarcane, Beat
Ans. B
214. Sprinkler irrigation method is not suited for soils having infiltration rate less than
(A) 4 mm/hr
(B) 2 cm/hr
(C) 4 cm/hr
(D) 3 mm/hr
Ans. A
215. The irrigation efficiency of sprinklers depend upon the of water application
(A) Degree of uniformity
(B) Quality
(C) Size
(D) Quantity
Ans. A
216. In _______ irrigation system water is spread into the air and is allowed to fall on the ground somewhat resembling like rainfall
(A) Drip
(B) Subsurface drip
(C) Sprinkler
(D) Pulse
Ans. C
217. In case of sprinklers _______ are positioned across the direction of wind
(A) Sprinklers
(B) Sub main
(C) Laterals
(D) Main
Ans. C
218. The IW/CPE approach is preferred mostly for _______ irrigation
(A) Surface
(B) Drip
(C) Sprinkler
(D) Bubbler
Ans. A
219. Loose rock fill dams are economical for gully control, when gully depth is up to ______
(A) 1.2 m
(B) 2.0 m
(C) 5.0 m
(D) 10.0 m
Ans. A
220. The most advanced and efficient practice of fertilization is _______
(A) Drip fertigation
(B) Row application of fertilizer
(C) Use of coated fertilizer
(D) Use of injector
Ans. A
221. Plantation of high water consuming trees for withdrawal of ground water is termed as __________
(A) Mole drainage
(B) Interceptor drains
(C) Bio drainage
(D) None of the above
Ans. C
222. The optimal pH range for most plants is between
(A) 4.0 and 8.0
(B) 7.0 and 9.0
(C) 5.5 and 7.0
(D) 2.3 and 9.3
Ans. C
223. The most suitable range of pH for fruit plants
(A) 7
(B) 5
(C) 8
(D) 4
Ans. A
224. Surge irrigation is technically an advancement over
(A) Border irrigation
(B) Check basin irrigation
(C) Furrow irrigation
(D) Drip irrigation
Ans. C
225. The most suitable soil for crop production is _________
(A) Black soil
(B) Laterite and lateritic
(C) Alluvial soil
(D) All of the above
Ans. C